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KCET BSc Nursing Question Paper: The KCET (Karnataka Common Entrance Test) for BSc. Nursing is conducted annually by the Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) for the academic session 2025- 2026. The exam date for KCET 2025 is 16th and 17th April 2025. The exam is conducted offline, in a pen-and-paper-based format. Biology stream candidiates can get enrolled in various allied health science UG programmes in Karnataka.
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Below are the KCET Bsc nursing question paper 2025 PDF for all major subjects i.e. Physics, Chemsitry and Biology. These papers are useful for understanding the exam pattern, difficulty level, and types of questions asked. Students can download to check and analyse their performance. It will also help aspirants in practising to improve speed and accuracy for the exam.
KCET 2025 Physics Question Paper with Answers | |
KCET 2025 Chemistry Question Paper with solutions | |
KCET 2025 Biology Question Paper |
Practicing KCET BSc Nursing previous year question papers help to understand the exam pattern and commonly asked topics. Students can download the PDF from the table given below to use it for regular practice. Solving these papers increases confidence and improves time management before the actual exam.
KCET BSc Nursing 2024 Previous Year Physics Question Paper with Solutions | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2024 Previous Year Chemistry Question Paper With Answers | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2024 Previous Year Biology Question Paper | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2023 Physics Previous Year Question Paper | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2023 Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2023 Biology Previous Year Question Paper | |
KCET BSc. Nursing 2022 Previous Year Physics Question Paper | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2022 Previous Year Chemistry Question Paper | |
KCET BSc Nursing 2022 Previous Year Biology Question Paper |
The exam pattern helps the student to understand the time, subjects covered, total questions, etc., before the exam. The overall exam pattern of the question paper is given below-
Subjects | Physics, Chemistry, Biology (60 questions each) |
Total Questions | 180 (60 questions per subject) |
Total Marks | 180 (1 mark per question, no negative marking) |
Duration | 80 minutes per subject (240 minutes total if given in one go) |
Syllabus | Based on Class 11 & 12 Karnataka PUC/NCERT syllabus |
Type of Questions | Multiple-choice questions |
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The KCET BSc Nursing Paper, over the years, has shown a consistent trend in terms of difficulty and question distribution.
Biology is the most important and scoring subject. Questions are mainly PUC/NCERT syllabus and cover concepts from both classes 11 and 12.
Physics includes numerical questions that test the conceptual understanding, mostly from topics like work and energy, current electricity and laws of motion.
Chemistry has a mix of both theory and basic numerical questions from organic chemistry, chemical bonding, and periodic classification.
The overall difficulty level remains from moderate to difficult. Questions are based on the concepts of classes 11th and 12th, with a few application-based and reasoning questions. Refer to the download table above for detailed PDFs.
The previous year's questions give an idea of the type and difficulty level of the questions that are asked in the exam. Practising these questions will help to build confidence before answering the questions on the actual day of the exam.
Q1. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion (SHM), at its mean position: (2024)
(A) Velocity is zero, and acceleration is maximum
(B) Velocity is maximum, and acceleration is zero
(C) Both velocity and acceleration are maximum
(D) Both velocity and acceleration are zero
Correct Answer: (B) Velocity is maximum, and acceleration is zero.
Solution: For simple harmonic motion (SHM), the velocity v and acceleration a at the mean position (where the displacement is zero) are:
- The Velocity is maximum because it is directly 2 proportional to the displacement in SHM.
- Acceleration is zero at the mean position because it is proportional to the displacement, and displacement is zero at the mean position. Thus, the velocity is maximum and the acceleration is zero at the mean position.
Q2. Under the electrostatic condition of a charged conductor, which of the following statements is true? (2024)
(A) The electric field on the surface of a charged conductor is σ/ 2ϵ0, where σ is the surface charge density
(B) The electric potential inside a charged conductor is always zero
(C) Any excess charge resides on the surface of the conductor
(D) The net electric field is tangential to the surface of the conductor.
Correct Answer: (C) Any excess charge resides on the surface of the conductor.
Solution: In electrostatics, the excess charge on a charged conductor resides on its surface. This is due to the repulsive forces between like charges, which push them towards the outer surface. Additionally, the electric field inside a conductor is zero in electrostatic equilibrium.
Q3. When a p-n junction diode is in forward bias, which type of charge carriers flow in the connecting wire? (2023)
(A) Ions
(B) Protons
(C) Holes
(D) Free electrons.
Correct Answer: (D) Free electrons
Solution: In a p-n junction diode in forward bias, free electrons from the n-side of the diode move towards the p-side, resulting in the flow of free electrons through the external circuit.
Q4. A nucleus with a mass number of 220 initially at rest emits an alpha particle. If the Q value of the reaction is 5.5 MeV, calculate the value of the kinetic energy of the alpha particle. (2023)
(A) 5.4 MeV
(B) 7.4 MeV
(C) 4.5 MeV
(D) 6.5 MeV
Correct Answer: (B) 7.4 MeV
Solution: The Q value of the reaction is the difference in the total kinetic energy of the products and the reactants. Since the nucleus is initially at rest, the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is equal to the Q value of the reaction. Therefore, the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is 7.4 MeV.
Q5. Which of the following sets of polymers are used as fibres? (2024)
(i) Teflon
(ii) Starch
(iii) Terylene
(iv) Orlon
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (3) (iii) Terylene and (iv) Orlon.
Solution: Terylene and Orlon are classified as fibres due to their structural properties and usability in fabric production. Terylene, a type of polyester, is widely used for making textiles due to its strength, durability, and resistance to stretching. Orlon, a type of acrylic polymer, is also used as a fibre because of its wool-like texture and lightweight nature. Teflon and starch do not have fibre-forming characteristics, which makes them unsuitable in this context.
Q6. Which one of the following is a cationic detergent? (2024)
(A) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
(B) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(C) Dodecylbenzene sulphonic acid
(D) Dodecylbenzene
Correct Answer: (A) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
Solution: Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide is a cationic detergent, which means it has a positively charged hydrophilic end. This property makes it suitable for use in antiseptic solutions and fabric softeners.
Q7. Which of the following is an organometallic compound? (2023)
(A) CH3COONa
(B) CH3CH2MgBr
(C) (CH3COO)2Ca
(D) CH₂ONa
Correct answer: (B) CH3CH2MgBr (Ethylmagnesium bromide)
Solution: Organometallic compounds: These are chemical compounds that contain at least one metal-carbon (M-C) bond, where the carbon is part of an organic molecule (hydrocarbon).
Q8. Which one of the following is a non-narcotic analgesic? (2023)
(A) Heroin
(B) Codeine
(C) Aspirin
(D) Morphine
Correct Answer: (C) Aspirin.
Solution: Narcotic analgesics are opioids, which bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system to relieve pain. They also have psychoactive effects and can lead to addiction. Examples include heroin, morphine, and codeine (B & D). Aspirin is a non-narcotic analgesic. It works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are involved in pain and inflammation. It does not have psychoactive effects and is less likely to be addictive.
Q9. Homeostasis is a condition where the organisms: (2024)
(A) Maintain a constant internal environment in an ever-changing external environment
(B) Do not maintain a constant internal environment
(C) Change their internal environment according to their external environment
(D) Change their internal environment when the external environment is constant
Correct Answer: (A) Maintain a constant internal environment in an ever-changing external environment
Solution: Homeostasis is the ability of an organism to regulate its internal conditions, such as temperature, ph, and electrolyte balance, to maintain optimal physiological processes regardless of external changes. For example, humans regulate body temperature through sweating or shivering.
Q10. Which of the following is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction? (2024)
(A) PCR
(B) ELISA
(C) rDNA technology
(D) Gel Electrophoresis
Correct Answer: (B) ELISA Solution
Solution: ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) utilises the specific binding of antigens and antibodies to detect the presence of pathogens, proteins, or other biomolecules. It is commonly used in medical diagnostics for conditions like HIV.
You can access all previous years' question papers in the table above.
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