AIIMS BSc Nursing Question Paper 2026 (OUT): Answer Key, Solutions, Memory-Based PDF & Exam Analysis

AIIMS BSc Nursing Question Paper 2026 Highlights

AIIMS BSc Nursing Question Paper 2026 PDF Download

Since the AIIMS BSc Nursing (Hons.) 2026 examination was conducted in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode, AIIMS does not officially release the question paper PDF after the examination. To help candidates analyse their performance, Careers360 has reconstructed the AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 memory-based question paper using questions shared by students immediately after the exam and verified by subject experts.

The downloadable PDF contains memory-based questions, expert-verified answers, detailed explanations, and important concepts asked in Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and General Knowledge. Candidates can use it to calculate their probable score, compare responses, and understand the overall question pattern.

AIIMS BSc Nursing Question Paper 2026 With Solutions PDF - Direct Download Link

Download the AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 memory-based Question Paper PDF with expert solutions and answer key. Since AIIMS does not officially publish the CBT question paper, the PDF has been reconstructed using questions recalled by candidates immediately after the examination and verified by subject experts.

Also Read: AIIMS BSc Nursing Previous Year Question Paper with SolutionS PDF

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Resources

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Memory-Based Questions with Answers & Explanations

The following memory-based questions were shared by candidates who appeared in the AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 entrance examination. Every question has been reviewed by Careers360 subject experts and includes the correct answer with detailed explanation. More questions will continue to be added as additional candidate feedback is received.

Q1. Which hormone(s) levels are higher on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle?

Options: A) LH B) Progesterone C) FSH D) Androgen

i) Both A and C (LH and FSH)

ii) Only B (Progesterone)

iii) Only A (LH)

iv) Both B and D (Progesterone and Androgen)

Correct Answer: i) Both A and C (LH and FSH)

Explanation: Day 14 marks ovulation. There is a pre-ovulatory surge of both LH (LH surge triggers ovulation) and FSH. Progesterone rises after ovulation in the luteal phase; Androgen is not specifically elevated at this point.

Q2. What is common in Darwin's finches and Australian marsupials?

A) They are all extinct

B) They show adaptive radiation

C) They have homologous organs

D) They are all found in South America

Correct Answer: B) They show adaptive radiation

Explanation: Both Darwin's finches (Galapagos Islands) and Australian marsupials are classic examples of adaptive radiation — diversification of species from a common ancestor into different ecological niches.

Q3. Accurate taxonomy hierarchy in ascending order is:

A) Species > Genus > Family > Order > Class > Phylum > Kingdom

B) Kingdom > Phylum > Class > Order > Family > Genus > Species

C) Species > Genus > Family > Class > Order > Phylum > Kingdom

D) Genus > Species > Family > Order > Class > Phylum > Kingdom

Correct Answer: A) Species > Genus > Family > Order > Class > Phylum > Kingdom

Explanation: The correct ascending taxonomic hierarchy is: Species > Genus > Family > Order > Class > Phylum > Kingdom. Option B is descending order.

Q4. Match the following — Plant groups and examples:

List 1 (Group): A. Bryophyta B. Pteridophytes C. Gymnosperm D. Algae

List 2 (Example): 1. Cycas 2. Ulothrix 3. Marchantia 4. Equisetum

A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

D) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Correct Answer: A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Explanation: Marchantia is a Bryophyte; Equisetum is a Pteridophyte; Cycas is a Gymnosperm; Ulothrix is an Alga.

Q5. Parasite of malaria is:

A) Anopheles mosquito

B) Plasmodium

C) Aedes mosquito

D) Trypanosoma

Correct Answer: B) Plasmodium

Explanation: Plasmodium (P. vivax, P. falciparum, etc.) is the actual parasite causing malaria. Anopheles mosquito is only the vector (carrier). Aedes carries dengue/chikungunya; Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness.

Q6. Relationship where one species is harmed and the other is unaffected is called:

A) Mutualism

B) Commensalism

C) Amensalism

D) Parasitism

Correct Answer: C) Amensalism

Explanation: In Amensalism, one organism is harmed while the other is neither benefited nor harmed. Example: Penicillium inhibits bacterial growth. (Parasitism = one harmed, one benefited.)

Q7. Which of the following belongs to Solanaceae family?

A) Potato, Tomato, Brinjal

B) Wheat, Rice, Maize

C) Rose, Apple, Pear

D) Pea, Gram, Soybean

Correct Answer: A) Potato, Tomato, Brinjal

Explanation: Solanaceae (nightshade family) includes Potato (Solanum tuberosum), Tomato (Solanum lycopersicum), and Brinjal (Solanum melongena). Mustard belongs to Brassicaceae, not Solanaceae.

Q8. Structure of egg apparatus that guides pollen tube entry is:

A) Synergids

B) Antipodal cells

C) Egg cell

D) Central cell

Correct Answer: A) Synergids

Explanation: Synergids possess the filiform apparatus at their micropylar end, which guides the pollen tube into the embryo sac. They also secrete chemotropic substances that attract the pollen tube.

Q9. Safest period for MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is:

A) 0-4 weeks

B) 4-8 weeks

C) 8-12 weeks

D) 12-20 weeks

Correct Answer: C) 8-12 weeks (MTP is generally safe up to 12 weeks / first trimester)

Explanation: MTP is considered relatively safe up to 12 weeks of gestation (first trimester). Beyond 12 weeks, risks increase significantly. The MTP Act in India permits termination up to 20 weeks under specific conditions, but 8-12 weeks is the safest window.

Q10. Incomplete dominance is found in:

A) Mirabilis jalapa (4 o'clock plant)

B) Pisum sativum (Pea)

C) Drosophila (Fruit fly)

D) Human blood groups

Correct Answer: A) Mirabilis jalapa (4 o'clock plant)

Explanation: Mirabilis jalapa is the classic example of incomplete dominance — a cross between red and white flowers produces pink offspring (F1), showing neither allele is completely dominant. Pisum shows complete dominance; human blood groups show co-dominance.

Q11. Which statement(s) about Golgi bodies is/are correct?

Statement 1: Golgi bodies discovered in 1898

Statement 2: Its size is 5-10 micrometer

Statement 3: Flat structures of Golgi bodies called cisternae

A) Only 1 and 3

B) Only 1 and 2

C) Only 2 and 3

D) All 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation: Golgi bodies were discovered by Camillo Golgi in 1898 (correct). Their flat, membrane-bound sacs are called cisternae (correct). However, the size of Golgi bodies is typically 1-3 micrometers — the 5-10 micrometer figure is incorrect.

Q12. How do steroidal hormones act?

A) Bind to cell surface receptors and activate second messengers

B) Pass through cell membrane and bind to intracellular receptors, affecting gene expression

C) Act as enzymes

D) Directly bind to DNA

Correct Answer: B) Pass through cell membrane and bind to intracellular receptors, affecting gene expression

Explanation: Steroidal hormones are lipid-soluble, so they easily cross the cell membrane and bind to intracellular (cytoplasmic or nuclear) receptors. The hormone-receptor complex then acts as a transcription factor, affecting gene expression.

Q13. Which plant shows whorled phyllotaxy?

A) Calotropis

B) China rose

C) Guava

D) Alstonia

Correct Answer: D) Alstonia

Explanation: Whorled phyllotaxy = three or more leaves arise from each node. Alstonia is the standard NCERT example. Calotropis and China rose show opposite phyllotaxy; Guava also shows opposite phyllotaxy.

Q14. Which is NOT a function of ethylene?

A) Root hair formation

B) Stomata closure

C) Fruit ripening

D) All are functions of ethylene

Correct Answer: B) Stomata closure

Explanation: Ethylene promotes fruit ripening, root hair formation, senescence, and abscission. Stomata closure is primarily the function of ABA (Abscisic Acid), not ethylene.

Q15. Filiform apparatus is found in:

A) Egg cell

B) Synergids

C) Antipodal cells

D) Central cell

Correct Answer: B) Synergids

Explanation: The filiform apparatus is a finger-like projection present at the micropylar end of synergid cells. It plays a key role in guiding and absorbing the pollen tube during fertilization.

Q16. How can ADA (Adenosine Deaminase) deficiency be treated?

A) Gene therapy

B) Enzyme replacement therapy

C) Bone marrow transplantation

D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation: ADA deficiency causes SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency). It can be treated by gene therapy (first successful case in humans), enzyme replacement therapy (periodic ADA injections), or bone marrow transplantation.

Q17. Which phylum has the highest number of species?

A) Arthropoda

B) Mollusca

C) Chordata

D) Annelida

Correct Answer: A) Arthropoda

Explanation: Arthropoda is the largest animal phylum with over 1 million described species — more than all other animal phyla combined. Insects alone account for the majority. They are found in almost every habitat on Earth.

Q18. What is the correct evolutionary order of occurrence?

A) Invertebrates > Jawless fishes > Amphibians > Reptiles > Mammals

B) Jawless fishes > Invertebrates > Amphibians > Reptiles > Mammals

C) Invertebrates > Amphibians > Jawless fishes > Reptiles > Mammals

D) Invertebrates > Jawless fishes > Reptiles > Amphibians > Mammals

Correct Answer: A) Invertebrates > Jawless fishes > Amphibians > Reptiles > Mammals

Explanation: The correct chronological evolutionary sequence is: Invertebrates (Cambrian) > Jawless fishes (Ordovician) > Jawed fishes > Amphibians (Devonian) > Reptiles (Carboniferous) > Mammals (Triassic/Jurassic).

Q19. In ecology, the Z value (slope of species-area relationship) is approximately:

A) 0.1 to 0.2

B) 0.5 to 0.8

C) 0.1 to 0.3 (for mainland) and 0.6 to 1.2 (for islands)

D) 1.0 to 2.0

Correct Answer: C) 0.1 to 0.3 (for mainland) and 0.6 to 1.2 (for islands)

Explanation: In the species-area relationship (log S = log C + Z log A), the Z value (regression coefficient) is 0.1-0.2 for small areas, 0.1-0.3 for larger mainland regions, and 0.6-1.2 for islands.

Q20. Match the following — Drugs and their source plants:

A) A-3, B-1, C-2

B) A-1, B-2, C-3

C) A-2, B-3, C-1

D) A-3, B-2, C-1

Correct Answer: A) A-3, B-1, C-2

Explanation: Opioids (morphine, heroin) come from Papaver somniferum (Opium poppy); Cannabinoids (marijuana, hashish) come from Cannabis sativa; Cocaine comes from Erythroxylum coca.

Q21. Which statement is incorrect about Mycoplasma?

A) They are the smallest known cells

B) They can survive without oxygen

C) They cannot survive without oxygen

D) They lack a cell wall

Correct Answer: C) They cannot survive without oxygen

Explanation: Mycoplasmas are the smallest known living cells and they lack a cell wall. They are facultative anaerobes — meaning they CAN survive without oxygen. So option C is the incorrect statement.

Q22. Which does NOT belong to Solanaceae?

A) Tomato

B) Brinjal

C) Petunia

D) Mustard

Correct Answer: D) Mustard

Explanation: Tomato, Brinjal, and Petunia all belong to Solanaceae family. Mustard (Brassica) belongs to Brassicaceae (Cruciferae) family.

Q23. Find the incorrect statement:

A) Cyclosporin A is produced by Monascus purpureus

B) Statins are blood cholesterol lowering agents

C) Streptococcus produces a clot-bursting agent

D) All are correct

Correct Answer: A) Cyclosporin A is produced by Monascus purpureus

Explanation: Cyclosporin A (immunosuppressant) is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum, NOT Monascus purpureus. Monascus purpureus produces Statins. Streptococcus produces Streptokinase, a clot-busting agent. So option A is the incorrect statement.

Q24. Which organism has the ability of bioluminescence?

A) Agaricus (Mushroom)

B) Nostoc

C) Dinoflagellates (e.g., Noctiluca)

D) Penicillium

Correct Answer: C) Dinoflagellates (e.g., Noctiluca)

Explanation: Bioluminescence (emission of light by living organisms) is a characteristic feature of Dinoflagellates such as Noctiluca. They are responsible for the glowing sea phenomenon. Nostoc is a cyanobacterium; Agaricus and Penicillium are fungi — none of these show bioluminescence.

Q25. Which statement is incorrect about bulliform cells?

A) They are large, thin-walled cells

B) They help in the rolling of leaves during water stress

C) They are present in dicots

D) They are present in monocots

Correct Answer: C) They are present in dicots

Explanation: Bulliform cells (motor cells) are large, bubble-shaped, thin-walled epidermal cells found exclusively in monocot leaves (e.g., grasses). They lose water during stress and cause leaves to roll/curl to reduce transpiration. They are NOT found in dicots.

Q26. Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis results in:

A) Syncytium (Coenocytic cell)

B) Diploid cell

C) Haploid cell

D) Zygote

Correct Answer: A) Syncytium (Coenocytic cell)

Explanation: When karyokinesis (nuclear division) occurs repeatedly without cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division), multiple nuclei are formed within a single cell — this is called a Syncytium or Coenocytic condition. Example: liquid endosperm in coconut, Rhizopus.

Q27. The AV node (Atrioventricular node) is located in:

A) Right atrium near the opening of coronary sinus

B) Left atrium

C) Right ventricle

D) Interventricular septum

Correct Answer: A) Right atrium near the opening of coronary sinus

Explanation: The AV node is located in the lower part of the right atrium, near the opening of the coronary sinus and close to the tricuspid valve. It receives impulses from the SA node and transmits them to the ventricles via the Bundle of His.

AIIMS Nursing 2026 Answer Key PDF

The AIIMS BSc nursing answer key 2026 PDF is now available above on this page. AIIMS Nursing 2026 Answer Keys are based on memory-based questions submitted by candidates and verified by subject experts. The AIIMS BSc nursing 2026 answer key will help candidates compare their responses, estimate their probable scores, and identify the correct answers before the official results are announced.

Benefits of the AIIMS BSc Nursing Answer Key 2026

• Calculate your expected score before the result.
• Verify answers using expert-reviewed solutions.
• Analyse mistakes and identify weak areas.
• Understand the difficulty level of each subject.
• Compare your performance with the question paper and solutions.

Important Topics Asked in AIIMS BSc Nursing Entrance Exam 2026 Question Paper

Physics

• Current Electricity
• Modern Physics
• Electrostatics
• Semiconductor
• Ray Optics

Chemistry

• Biomolecules
• Chemical Bonding
• Coordination Compounds
• Organic Reactions
• Thermodynamics

Biology

• Human Reproduction
• Ecology
• Plant Kingdom
• Cell Biology
• Genetics
• Evolution

General Knowledge

• Healthcare
• Current Affairs
• Awards
• Indian Constitution

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Score Calculator

Candidates can estimate their probable score using the AIIMS Nursing 2026 answer key available on this page. Follow these steps to estimate your probable score:

1. Compare your responses with the AIIMS BSc nursing answer key 2026.
2. Add 1 mark for every correct answer.
3. Deduct ⅓ mark for every incorrect answer.
4. Do not add or deduct marks for unattempted questions.
5. Compare your final score with the expected cutoff below to estimate your admission chances.

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Expected Cutoff

The AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 expected cutoff will be released after the entrance exam process is completed. The cutoff is likely to vary depending on several factors, including the overall difficulty level of both shifts, the number of candidates who appeared, seat availability, and category-wise reservation. As both shifts were reported to be of moderate difficulty, the cutoff is expected to be on lines similar to recent years. The expected cutoffs are given below after analysing both shifts and candidate performance.

Factors That May Influence the AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Cutoff

• Overall difficulty level of the AIIMS BSc nursing entrance exam 2026 question paper.
• Performance of candidates across both shifts
• Total number of applicants and candidates who appeared
• Number of seats available in participating AIIMS institutes
• Category-wise reservation and previous years' admission trends

AIIMS BSc Nursing Exam Analysis 2026

The AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 exam concluded successfully on June 27, 2026. Based on initial feedback from candidates and subject experts, the AIIMS BSc nursing paper 2026 was moderate in difficulty, with a balanced mix of conceptual, application-based, and NCERT-oriented questions. Biology and Chemistry were considered relatively scoring, while Physics was the most time-consuming section due to calculation-based and concept-driven questions. General Knowledge featured a mix of current affairs and static GK questions. The analysis below is based on memory-based questions submitted by candidates and reviewed by subject experts.

Subject-wise Difficulty: Physics, Chemistry, Biology & GK

Type of Questions Asked:

• Biology: mostly NCERT-based
• Physics: numerical and concept-based questions made it the lengthiest section.
• Chemistry: balanced questions
• General Knowledge: included current affairs, healthcare, and static GK

AIIMS BSc Nursing Question Paper 2026: Exam Pattern

Understanding the exam pattern is important for analysing the AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 question paper and planning your preparation. The entrance exam is conducted in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode in two shifts: Shift 1 & Shift 2 for the first time ever. The AIIMS BSc Nursing Paper 2026 tested candidates on their conceptual understanding of Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and General Knowledge.

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Exam Pattern

Candidates should understand the AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 exam pattern to prepare effectively and manage their time during the entrance exam.

AIIMS Nursing Paper 2026: Subject-wise Distribution

Key Highlights of the AIIMS BSc Nursing Question Paper 2026

• The exam is conducted entirely in online (CBT) mode.

• All questions are objective-type multiple-choice questions (MCQs).

• The paper primarily focuses on Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (PCB), which together account for 90% of the total questions.

• The remaining questions assess candidates' General Knowledge and current affairs awareness.

• Most questions are concept-based and require a strong understanding of Class 11 and 12 NCERT topics, particularly in Biology and Chemistry.

• Effective time management and conceptual clarity are important for scoring well in the AIIMS BSc Nursing entrance exam.