JSS University Mysore Allied Sciences 2026
NAAC A+ Accredited| Ranked #21 in University Category by NIRF | Applications open for multiple UG & PG Programs
AIIMS Post Basic Nursing 2026 Question Paper PDF: Candidates who appeared for the AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Entrance Examination 2026 can download the AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Question Paper 2026 PDF, Answer Key, and Detailed Solutions from this page. The question paper and answer key help candidates review their performance, understand the latest exam pattern, identify important topics, and estimate their probable score.
This Story also Contains
Apart from post-exam evaluation, the AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Question Paper serves as one of the most valuable preparation resources for future aspirants. Solving actual exam-level questions helps candidates understand the nature of questions asked by AIIMS and improve their preparation strategy for upcoming nursing entrance examinations.
Candidates can access the AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Question Paper PDF, Answer Key, and Solutions from the table below.
| Resource | Download PDF |
|---|---|
| AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing 2026 Question Paper, Answers & Solutions | Download here |
Get expert advice on college selection, admission chances, and career path in a personalized counselling session.
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam Name | AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Entrance Exam 2026 |
| Conducting Body | AIIMS New Delhi |
| Exam Date | 30 May 2026 |
| Exam Mode | Computer-Based Test (CBT) |
| Question Type | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
| Course Offered | BSc Post Basic Nursing |
| Question Paper Status | Available |
| Answer Key Status | Available Soon |
| Solutions Status | Available Soon |
NAAC A+ Accredited| Ranked #21 in University Category by NIRF | Applications open for multiple UG & PG Programs
Industry-Relevant Programmes with Clinical Excellence. Merit-based scholarships available
The AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Question Paper and Answer Key help candidates evaluate their preparation and understand the examination pattern followed by AIIMS.
The AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Answer Key 2026 enables candidates to verify their responses and estimate their probable scores before the declaration of results.
Match your answers with the official answer key.
Award marks for correct responses.
Deduct marks according to the marking scheme, if applicable.
Calculate the final score.
Compare your score with expected cutoff trends.
The AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing Question Paper 2026 was largely focused on core nursing subjects and practical clinical applications. Based on expert review and candidate feedback, the paper tested conceptual understanding rather than rote memorisation. Medical-Surgical Nursing, Community Health Nursing, Obstetrics and Gynaecological Nursing, Child Health Nursing, and Nursing Management contributed a significant share of questions. Overall, the difficulty level of the examination was moderate.
The majority of questions were nursing-concept based.
Medical-Surgical Nursing carried significant weightage.
Community Health Nursing questions were prominent.
Several questions tested practical nursing applications.
Clinical decision-making questions were included.
Overall paper difficulty was moderate.
Time management played an important role.
Question: 1
How does a healthy stoma appear?
Options
(A) Blue to purple, dry, and pale
(B) Pink to red, moist, and shiny
(C) Dark brown, crusty, and dry
(D) Pale white, wet, and bleeding
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: A healthy, well-perfused stoma should appear pink to red, moist, and shiny, resembling the healthy mucous membrane of the oral cavity.
Question: 2
In which year was the National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) launched?
Options
(A) 2005
(B) 2009
(C) 2013
(D) 2018
Correct option: (C)
Explanation: The National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) was launched by the Government of India in the year 2013 as a sub-mission under an overarching National Health Mission (NHM).
Question: 3
What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Options
(A) Protamine sulfate
(B) Calcium gluconate
(C) Naloxone
(D) Vitamin K
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: Calcium gluconate is the standard antidote used to reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate toxicity, especially when respiratory depression or loss of deep tendon reflexes occurs.
Question: 4
When does the puerperium period start and end?
Options
(A) From the onset of labor until delivery of the fetus
(B) From the delivery of the placenta until 6 weeks postpartum
(C) From the rupture of membranes until 24 hours postpartum
(D) From 2 weeks postpartum until 3 months postpartum
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: The puerperium is the period beginning immediately after the delivery of the placenta and extending for approximately 6 weeks (42 days), during which the maternal reproductive organs return to their original non-pregnant state.
Question: 5
What ECG changes are typically seen in hypokalemia?
Options
(A) Tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes
(B) Prominent U waves, flattened T waves, and ST segment depression
(C) ST segment elevation and pathological Q waves
(D) Shortened QT interval and prolonged PR interval
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: Hypokalemia (low serum potassium levels) characteristically manifests on an ECG as flat or inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and the appearance of prominent U waves.
Question: 6
In which condition is Charcot's Triad classically observed?
Options
(A) Acute pancreatitis
(B) Acute cholecystitis
(C) Acute cholangitis
(D) Acute appendicitis
Correct option: (C)
Explanation: Charcot's triad consists of fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. It is a classic sign indicating acute cholangitis, which is an infection of the biliary tree.
Question: 7
What is a common clinical sign or symptom of Myocardial Infarction (MI)?
Options
(A) Severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, neck, or jaw
(B) Sharp pain in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen
(C) Sudden onset of a productive cough with pink frothy sputum
(D) Generalized headache with visual disturbances
Correct option: (A)
Explanation: The most common classic sign of myocardial infarction (MI) is severe, crushing substernal chest pain that often radiates up to the neck, jaw, or down the left arm. An ECG may also show ST segment elevation.
Question: 8
Which disease is characterized by a "cobblestone appearance" of the mucosa?
Options
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Crohn's disease
(C) Celiac disease
(D) Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: A "cobblestone appearance" is a characteristic endoscopic and gross pathological finding in Crohn's disease, caused by deep, linear ulcerations intersecting with areas of uninvolved, edematous mucosa.
Question: 9
What is the correct sequence for physical examination of the abdomen?
Options
(A) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
(B) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
(C) Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
(D) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: For an abdominal physical examination, the correct order is inspection followed immediately by auscultation. Palpation and percussion are performed last because manipulating the abdomen first can alter bowel sounds and cause false auscultation findings.
Question: 10
What do you call a disease that is constantly present in a specific geographic area?
Options
(A) Epidemic
(B) Pandemic
(C) Endemic
(D) Sporadic
Correct option: (C)
Explanation: An endemic disease refers to the constant presence or usual prevalence of a specific disease or infectious agent within a defined geographic area or population group.
Question: 11
In which condition is a Bandl's ring (pathological retraction ring) observed?
Options
(A) Precipitate labor
(B) Preterm labor
(C) Obstructed labor
(D) Induced labor
Correct option: (C)
Explanation: A Bandl's ring (pathological retraction ring) is a classic warning sign of obstructed labor. It forms at the junction of the thinning lower uterine segment and the thickening upper uterine segment when the fetus cannot descend.
Question: 12
Which blood group is known as the universal red blood cell donor?
Options
(A) AB positive
(B) O positive
(C) AB negative
(D) O negative
Correct option: (D)
Explanation: Blood type O negative is considered the universal red blood cell donor because it lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, minimizing the risk of a severe hemolytic transfusion reaction in emergencies.
Question: 13
On which physiological principle does a local hot application primarily work?
Options
(A) Vasoconstriction
(B) Vasodilation
(C) Muscle contraction
(D) Fluid evaporation
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: Local hot applications primarily work via the principle of vasodilation. The heat dilates blood vessels, which increases localized blood flow, delivers more oxygen/nutrients, and helps relax aching muscles.
Question: 14
All of the following are signs of true labor EXCEPT:
Options
(A) True labor contractions cause progressive cervical dilation and effacement.
(B) True labor pain is typically relieved easily by rest or sedation.
(C) True labor contractions are regular and gradually increase in frequency and intensity.
(D) True labor pain often begins in the back and radiates to the front of the abdomen.
Correct option: (B)
Explanation: Pain that is easily relieved by rest or sedation is a characteristic sign of false labor. True labor contractions continue and actually intensify despite rest or positional changes.
Question: 15
When is the second dose of the Japanese Encephalitis vaccine administered according to the National Immunization Schedule?
Options
(A) 6 weeks of age
(B) 9 months of age
(C) 16-24 months of age
(D) 5-6 years of age
Correct option: (C)
Explanation: According to the National Immunization Schedule, the second dose of the Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine is scheduled to be administered to children between 16 and 24 months of age.
The subject-wise analysis helps candidates understand which nursing areas carried higher weightage and difficulty.
Medical-Surgical Nursing
Moderate
Clinical scenario-based questions
High weightage
Community Health Nursing
Easy to Moderate
Conceptual and application-based questions
Obstetrics & Gynaecological Nursing
Moderate
Maternal health-focused questions
Child Health Nursing
Easy to Moderate
Direct nursing concepts
Nursing Education & Management
Moderate
Theory and management principles
| Score Range | Expected Performance |
|---|---|
| 80+ | Excellent |
| 70–79 | Very Good |
| 60–69 | Competitive |
| Below 60 | Depends on category and competition |
Candidates should solve previous year AIIMS Nursing question papers under exam-like conditions.
The answer key enables candidates to verify responses and estimate their probable scores before the official result declaration.
Benefits of Using the Answer Key
Estimate expected score
Identify incorrect responses
Analyse strengths and weaknesses
Compare performance with expected cutoff
Understand correct solution approaches
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Candidates can download the AIIMS BSc Post Basic Nursing 2026 question paper PDF along with answer keys and detailed solutions from this page.
Based on student feedback, the overall difficulty level was moderate, with Nursing subjects carrying the highest weightage.
Yes. The question paper helps future candidates understand exam trends, important topics, and frequently tested nursing concepts.
Recognized as Category 1 University by UGC | Accredited with A+ Grade by NAAC | Scholarships available
Ranked as India’s #1 Not for profit pvt. University by India Today
Ranked among the top Dental Colleges for 7 consecutive years by India Today poll
Get Started With Your Healthcare Career. 2026 Admissions open.
Get Job Ready in Healthcare | Employability-Focused Programs
Allied & Healthcare programs | 20+ Partner Universities & Institutes | 98% placement record