NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions with Detailed Solutions

Why OBG Questions With Detailed Solutions Are More Important

Knowing that an answer is correct is not the same as knowing why. A candidate who memorises "Betamethasone" as the answer to a foetal lung maturation question, without knowing why corticosteroids are given antenatally, will struggle the moment the same fact appears in a different wording. Detailed solutions close this gap. Each explanation below is written to satisfy the actual clinical or physiological reasoning.

NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions: Contraception and Family Planning

Q1. DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given every:

A. 3 weeks B. 3 months C. 2 months D. 2 years

Answer: B. 3 months
Explanation: DMPA, depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, is a long-acting hormonal injectable. One dose provides contraceptive cover for roughly three months, which is why it is scheduled on that cycle, rather than monthly like some other hormonal methods.

Q2. Copper T 380 is effective for how many years as a contraceptive?

A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 10 years D. 7 years

Answer: C. 10 years
Explanation: Copper T 380 is one of the longer-acting intrauterine devices available, remaining effective for up to 10 years after insertion. Shorter-acting copper IUDs exist too, which is why this question tests the specific model, not just IUDs in general.

Q3. Oral contraceptive pills, used as emergency contraception, should be given within how many hours of unprotected intercourse?

A. Within 72 hours B. Within 12 hours C. After 96 hours D. Within 36 hours

Answer: A. Within 72 hours
Explanation: Emergency contraception works by delaying or preventing ovulation, and its effectiveness drops the longer it is delayed. The standard window used in nursing and medical guidance is 72 hours, with earlier administration generally more effective than waiting closer to that limit.

NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions: Pregnancy and High-Risk Conditions

Q4. What is the drug of choice for managing convulsions in eclampsia?

A. Diazepam B. Pethidine C. Magnesium sulphate D. Ampicillin

Answer: C. Magnesium sulphate
Explanation: Magnesium sulphate is the standard drug for both preventing and treating eclamptic seizures, working by reducing neuromuscular excitability. Diazepam may be used in specific situations, but magnesium sulphate remains the first-line choice in standard obstetric protocols.

Q5. Which of the following is NOT a true feature of preeclampsia?

A. Polyuria B. Proteinuria C. Oedema D. Increased systolic blood pressure

Answer: A. Polyuria
Explanation: Preeclampsia reduces renal perfusion, which tends to cause oliguria, reduced urine output, rather than polyuria. Proteinuria, oedema, and raised blood pressure are all recognised features, which makes polyuria the clear outlier in this list.

Q6. Which anti-tuberculosis drug cannot be given during pregnancy?

A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Streptomycin D. Isoniazid

Answer: C. Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin carries a known risk of ototoxicity to the developing fetus, affecting hearing development. The other three drugs listed are generally considered safer options within standard anti-tubercular regimens during pregnancy.

Q7. Which drug is prescribed to an antenatal mother for fetal lung maturation?

A. Bromocriptine B. Metoprolol C. Betamethasone D. Metoclopramide

Answer: C. Betamethasone
Explanation: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to mothers at risk of preterm delivery, since it speeds up surfactant production in fetal lungs. This reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome if the baby is born early.

NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions: Labour and Delivery

Q8. In which degree of episiotomy tear does the anal sphincter remain intact?

A. 1st degree B. 2nd degree C. 3rd degree D. 4th degree

Answer: B. 2nd degree
Explanation: Episiotomy and perineal tears are graded by depth. First and second degree tears involve skin and underlying muscle without reaching the anal sphincter. Third degree tears involve the sphincter itself, and fourth degree extends into the rectal mucosa, which is the detail this question is really testing.

Q9. What should be used to wash the perineum?

A. Soap B. Antiseptic solution C. Chlorhexidine D. Water

Answer: D. Water
Explanation: Plain water is the standard recommendation for routine perineal care, since it cleans effectively without disrupting the area's natural healing process. Antiseptic solutions are reserved for specific clinical indications, not routine washing.

Q10. Obstructed labour is also known as:

A. Atocia B. Dystocia C. Precipitated labour D. Prolonged labour

Answer: B. Dystocia
Explanation: Dystocia is the clinical term for difficult or obstructed labour, distinct from precipitated labour, which describes an unusually fast delivery, and prolonged labour, which describes one that simply takes longer than expected without necessarily being obstructed.

Q11. The relation between the fetal presenting part and the maternal pelvis is known as:

A. Attitude B. Lie C. Position D. Station

Answer: C. Position
Explanation: Obstetric terms describe different relationships. Lie compares the fetal long axis to the mother's. Attitude describes the flexion of fetal parts relative to each other. Position specifically describes how the presenting part's reference point relates to the maternal pelvis, which is exactly what this question asks.

Q12. Which pelvis shape has the poorest prognosis for vaginal delivery?

A. Android B. Gynecoid C. Platypelloid D. Anthropoid

Answer: A. Android
Explanation: The android pelvis is narrower and more heart-shaped than the gynecoid pelvis, which is considered the most favourable shape for vaginal birth. This narrower shape makes android pelvis the correct answer whenever a question asks about the least favourable outcome.

NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions: Newborn and Postnatal Care

Q13. Which of the following is NOT a component of Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)?

A. Skin-to-skin contact B. Supplementary nutrition C. Exclusive breastfeeding D. Early discharge and follow-up

Answer: B. Supplementary nutrition
Explanation: KMC is built around skin-to-skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding, and structured early discharge with follow-up. Supplementary nutrition sits outside this core model, since exclusive breastfeeding, not supplementation, is the actual recommended practice within KMC.

Q14. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended up to:

A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 6 months D. 4 months

Answer: C. 6 months
Explanation: Exclusive breastfeeding, meaning breast milk only with no other liquids or solids, is recommended for the first six months of life. Breastfeeding itself may continue well beyond this point, but the "exclusive" period specifically ends at six months.

Q15. The umbilical cord is protected by:

A. Vernix caseosa B. Amniotic fluid C. Blood substitutes D. Wharton's jelly

Answer: D. Wharton's jelly
Explanation: Wharton's jelly is the gelatinous connective tissue surrounding the umbilical vessels, cushioning them against compression. Vernix caseosa, by comparison, protects the fetal skin, not the cord, which is the distinction this question tests.

Q16. Placental waste should be discarded in which coloured bag, as per biomedical waste management guidelines?

A. Black bag B. Yellow bag C. Red bag D. Blue bag

Answer: B. Yellow bag
Explanation: Biomedical waste is colour-coded by category. Human anatomical waste, including placental tissue, falls under the yellow bag category, distinct from red bags used for contaminated recyclable waste like tubing and gloves.

NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions: Anatomy and Physiology

Q17. What is the name of the outer lip-like structure that protects the entrance to the female reproductive system?

A. Hymen B. Labia C. Cervix D. None of the above

Answer: B. Labia
Explanation: The labia, specifically the labia majora, form the outer, lip-like folds of the external genitalia, protecting the structures within. The hymen and cervix are located further inward and serve different anatomical roles.

Q18. In the menstrual cycle, the lowering of which hormone causes menstruation?

A. Progesterone B. Thyroxine C. Estrogen D. Follicle-stimulating hormone

Answer: A. Progesterone
Explanation: A drop in progesterone, following the breakdown of the corpus luteum when no pregnancy occurs, triggers the shedding of the uterine lining. This hormonal drop is the direct physiological trigger for the onset of menstruation.

Q19. Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following functions?

A. Motor skills B. Childbirth and lactation C. Growth and mental ability D. Regulation of blood pressure

Answer: B. Childbirth and lactation
Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during labour and the milk-ejection reflex during breastfeeding. Both functions are tied to reproduction and childbirth, which is why they are grouped together as the correct answer here.

NORCET Mains OBG Previous Year Questions: Microbiology and Infection

Q20. Which microorganism is usually part of normal vaginal flora but can cause meningitis in newborns?

A. Corynebacterium species B. Candida albicans C. Group B streptococci D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Answer: C. Group B streptococci
Explanation: Group B streptococcus can colonise the vagina without causing symptoms in the mother, but transmission to the newborn during delivery carries a real risk of neonatal sepsis and meningitis. This dual nature, harmless in the mother, dangerous to the newborn, is exactly what the question is testing.

These 20 questions are taken directly from five real NORCET previous year papers, 2020 to 2024, not rewritten or simplified. The detailed solutions are original, added for clarity.