NEET PG Surgery PYQs 2026: Most Important Questions With Answers

NEET PG Surgery PYQ

Surgery has a habit of testing the same clinical sign under a different name almost every year. A question about pain shifting from the umbilicus to the right iliac fossa is really an appendicitis question, whether or not the word "appendicitis" ever appears in the statement. Recognising this pattern is often more useful than memorising a fact.

This also means Surgery questions favour a slightly different revision approach. Instead of studying organ systems individually, it helps to build a mental list of classic signs and syndromes and attach each one to its underlying diagnosis directly.

Most Repeated NEET PG Surgery PYQ Topics

Classic clinical signs are one of the most reliable categories here: Murphy's sign, Rovsing's sign, and similar eponymous findings appear in different forms of questions across multiple years. They compress a diagnosis into a single testable detail. Site-specific facts, the most common location for a particular cancer, tumour, or obstruction, form another consistent category, since they translate cleanly into direct, single-answer questions.

Named syndromes tied to a single underlying cause, such as Whipple's triad or Boerhaave syndrome, also repeat often, because they combine a memorable name with a clear diagnostic picture. Trauma and emergency assessment tools, like the FAST scan, repeat consistently too. This reflects how much of modern surgery testing has shifted toward acute, decision-driven scenarios rather than elective procedure detail.

NEET PG Surgery PYQ-Based Practice Questions

Classic Clinical Signs

Q1. Murphy's sign, elicited during abdominal examination, is classically associated with which condition?

A) Acute appendicitis

B) Acute cholecystitis

C) Acute pancreatitis

D) Perforated peptic ulcer

Answer: B) Acute cholecystitis. Pain and a brief pause in inspiration on palpation of the right upper quadrant, as the inflamed gallbladder touches the examining hand, is the classic description of Murphy's sign.

Q2. Rovsing's sign, where pressure on the left iliac fossa causes pain in the right iliac fossa, points to which diagnosis?

A) Acute appendicitis

B) Diverticulitis

C) Ovarian cyst rupture

D) Ectopic pregnancy

Answer: A) Acute appendicitis. This referred pain pattern is a classic supporting sign for appendicitis, even though it is not present in every case.

Q3. Boas' sign, referred pain felt at the tip of the right shoulder, is associated with which condition?

A) Acute cholecystitis

B) Acute pancreatitis

C) Splenic rupture

D) Myocardial infarction

Answer: A) Acute cholecystitis. This referred pain results from diaphragmatic irritation and is a supporting, though not universal, finding in cholecystitis.

Site-Specific and Statistical Facts

Q4. What is the most common site for colorectal cancer to develop?

A) Caecum

B) Ascending colon

C) Rectosigmoid region

D) Transverse colon

Answer: C) Rectosigmoid region. This area accounts for the largest share of colorectal cancers, which is part of why sigmoidoscopy remains a useful screening tool.

Q5. What is the most common site for a sigmoid volvulus to occur in adults?

A) Caecum

B) Sigmoid colon

C) Transverse colon

D) Splenic flexure

Answer: B) Sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon's long, mobile mesentery makes it the most common site for a volvulus to twist upon itself.

Q6. What is the most common benign tumour of the parotid gland?

A) Warthin's tumour

B) Pleomorphic adenoma

C) Oncocytoma

D) Mucoepidermoid tumour

Answer: B) Pleomorphic adenoma. It is the most common salivary gland tumour overall and typically presents as a slow-growing, painless swelling.

Q7. What is the most common malignant tumour of the salivary glands?

A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma

B) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

C) Acinic cell carcinoma

D) Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer: B) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma. It is the most frequently diagnosed malignant salivary gland tumour, most often arising in the parotid gland.

Named Syndromes

Q8. Whipple's triad is used to support the diagnosis of which condition?

A) Insulinoma

B) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

C) Carcinoid syndrome

D) Pancreatic pseudocyst

Answer: A) Insulinoma. The triad, symptoms of hypoglycaemia, low blood glucose at the time of symptoms, and relief after glucose administration, supports a diagnosis of insulin-secreting tumour.

Q9. Boerhaave syndrome refers to which of the following?

A) Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus

B) Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm

C) Spontaneous pneumothorax

D) Perforated gastric ulcer

Answer: A) Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus. It classically follows forceful vomiting and is a surgical emergency due to the risk of mediastinitis.

Q10. Frey's syndrome, marked by facial sweating during eating, is a recognised complication of which surgery?

A) Thyroidectomy

B) Parotidectomy

C) Mastectomy

D) Splenectomy

Answer: B) Parotidectomy. It results from aberrant nerve regeneration after surgery on the parotid gland, linking taste stimulation to sweating in the overlying skin.

Trauma and Emergency Surgery

Q11. What does the FAST scan used in trauma assessment stand for?

A) Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma

B) Fast Abdominal Scan Technique

C) Full Assessment for Surgical Trauma

D) Focused Arterial Scan for Trauma

Answer: A) Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma. It is a rapid bedside ultrasound protocol used to detect free fluid, usually blood, in trauma patients.

Q12. What is the most common organism responsible for cellulitis?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Group A Streptococcus

C) Escherichia coli

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer: B) Group A Streptococcus. It is the most frequently implicated organism in cellulitis, though Staphylococcus aureus is also a common cause.

Q13. What is generally considered a safe threshold of chest tube drainage before removal after a pneumothorax has resolved?

A) Less than 200 mL per day with no air leak

B) Less than 500 mL per day regardless of air leak

C) Zero drainage for one hour only

D) Any drainage level after 24 hours

Answer: A) Less than 200 mL per day with no air leak. Along with resolution of the pneumothorax on imaging, low drainage volume and no ongoing air leak support safe chest tube removal.

Q14. What is the most common indication for emergency splenectomy?

A) Splenic abscess

B) Splenic rupture from trauma

C) Hereditary spherocytosis

D) Splenic cyst

Answer: B) Splenic rupture from trauma. Traumatic rupture remains the leading reason for emergency splenectomy, particularly following blunt abdominal injury.

Q15. According to TNM cancer staging, what does the "T" component describe?

A) Tumour size and local extent

B) Type of tumour cell

C) Total number of tumours

D) Time since diagnosis

Answer: A) Tumour size and local extent. The T component describes the primary tumour's size and how far it has invaded local tissue, while N and M describe nodal spread and distant metastasis.

How to Use This Surgery PYQ Trend Analysis

Go through the topic categories above before the individual questions. Recognising that "clinical signs," "site-specific facts," and "named syndromes" are repeating question types, not just repeating facts, changes how you revise the rest of the syllabus too.

After attempting all 15 questions, group your mistakes by category rather than by question number. Missing every named syndrome question but getting every site-specific question right tells you exactly where to spend your next study session, which is a more useful signal.