FMGE Solutions 2025, 2024, 2023: Previous Year Questions with Solutions

Why FMGE Solutions Are Important for FMGE 2026 Preparation

FMGE solutions 2026 help candidates build strong conceptual clarity and improve accuracy by explaining each question in a simple and logical manner. Regular practice with the FMGE previous-year questions allows aspirants to understand exam patterns, identify high-weightage topics, and avoid common mistakes. Regular practice with FMGE solutions, along with analysing the FMGE subject-wise weightage, helps aspirants focus on high-yield topics and improve accuracy. A proper practise with these questions will also help candidates in guessing FMGE question paper 2026.

As per the latest update, the FMGE June 2026 exam is scheduled for June 28, 2026, making it important for candidates to focus on structured revision and smart preparation strategies in the final months. Using reliable FMGE solutions during this phase can significantly improve performance and confidence.

• Provide clear reasoning behind every correct answer
• Highlight key facts for quick revision
• Identify common mistakes and prevent repetition
• Strengthen concepts through step-by-step explanations
• Improve time management and efficiency in solving MCQs

FMGE Previous Year Question Solutions for June 2026 Preparation

Solving FMGE previous year questions with detailed solutions helps candidates understand the exam pattern, question trends, and subject-wise weightage. It also sharpens problem-solving skills and highlights important topics that require focused revision.

With the FMGE June 2026 exam approaching, consistent practice of these questions can improve speed, accuracy, and overall exam performance. To further strengthen preparation, candidates can attempt FMGE practice tests to simulate real exam conditions and improve time management.

FMGE Solutions (December 2025 Session)

Q1. A middle-aged man has progressive effort intolerance and visible bounding carotid pulsations. Nail beds show rhythmic flushing with each heartbeat. Which auscultatory finding best explains this condition?

A. Late diastolic murmur

B. Early diastolic murmur

C. Systolic ejection murmur

D. Mid-systolic murmur

Correct Answer: B. Early diastolic murmur

Q2. A patient in circulatory failure has ABG values: pH 7.3, HCO₃⁻ 10 mEq/L, pCO₂ 25 mmHg. What is the acid-base status?

A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

B. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

C. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

D. Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer: A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

Q3. A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible?

A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin B12

C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

D. Niacin

Correct Answer: C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

Q4. A patient presents with fever, jaundice, and renal failure after exposure to contaminated water. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Viral hepatitis

B. Malaria

C. Leptospirosis

D. Typhoid fever

Correct Answer: C. Leptospirosis

Q 5. Which drug is the treatment of choice for acute anaphylactic shock?

A. Hydrocortisone

B. Chlorpheniramine

C. Salbutamol

D. Adrenaline (Epinephrine)

Correct Answer: D. Adrenaline (Epinephrine)

FMGE Solutions (June 2025 Session)

1. Erb’s palsy and “policeman’s tip” deformity are associated with injury to which nerve roots? (Anatomy)

Ans: C5-C6

Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5-C6) causes paralysis of the deltoid, biceps, and supraspinatus muscles. The arm hangs by the side, internally rotated, with the forearm pronated- known as the ‘waiter’s tip’ position.

2. In atrial fibrillation, which JVP wave is absent? (Physiology)

Ans: A-wave

A-wave represents atrial contraction. Since atrial fibrillation has no coordinated atrial activity, the A-wave disappears, producing an irregular JVP pattern.

3. Increased orotic acid with high ammonia indicates which condition? (Biochemistry)

Ans: OTC deficiency

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency leads to impaired urea cycle function. This results in hyperammonemia with excess orotic acid due to carbamoyl phosphate accumulation.

4. Klinefelter syndrome has which chromosomal pattern? (Genetics)

Ans: 47,XXY

Patients have an extra X chromosome, leading to tall stature, small testes, infertility, and gynecomastia. It is the most common chromosomal cause of male hypogonadism.

5. Chronic kidney disease with anaemia is treated with which drug? (Pharmacology)

Ans: Darbepoetin

Darbepoetin is an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent that replaces deficient erythropoietin production in CKD. It helps correct anaemia and improves the quality of life.

6. Chocolate agar is used for which organism? (Microbiology)

Ans: Haemophilus influenzae

Chocolate agar provides NAD (factor V) and hemin (factor X), which H. influenzae requires for growth. It appears as small, moist, gray colonies on this enriched medium.

7. Water in the lungs and stomach suggests what? (Forensic Medicine)

Ans: Drowning

The presence of water in both organs indicates active inhalation and swallowing during drowning. This helps differentiate true drowning from postmortem immersion.

8. Achilles tendon rupture can occur with which antibiotic? (Pharmacology)

Ans: Fluoroquinolone

Fluoroquinolones can cause tendinopathy and tendon rupture by damaging collagen fibres. The Achilles tendon is most commonly affected, especially in elderly patients or those on steroids.

FMGE Solutions (Dec 2024 Session)

1. Which ion channel is affected by mutations in CFTR? (Physiology)

Ans: Chloride

CFTR is a chloride ion channel present mainly in epithelial cells of lungs, pancreas, and intestines. A defect prevents proper chloride and water movement, causing thick mucus secretions. This is the hallmark of cystic fibrosis pathophysiology.

2. Deficiency causing follicular hyperkeratosis? (Dermatology)

Ans: Vitamin A

Vitamin A is essential for epithelial cell differentiation. Its deficiency leads to dryness, rough skin, and plugging of hair follicles, producing a “gooseflesh” or follicular hyperkeratosis appearance.

3. Testicular mass with gynecomastia? (Surgery)

Ans: Leydig cell tumour

Leydig cell tumours secrete estrogen and testosterone, causing a hormonal imbalance. Gynecomastia occurs due to estrogen excess. These tumours are usually small, solid, and hormonally active.

4. Serous otitis media with cervical lymphadenopathy? (ENT)

Ans: Nasopharyngeal cancer

Unilateral serous otitis in adults is a red-flag sign for nasopharyngeal carcinoma causing Eustachian tube obstruction. Associated cervical lymphadenopathy strengthens the suspicion.

5. Substance involved in conjugation in the liver? (Biochemistry)

Ans: Glucuronic acid

Glucuronidation is the most common Phase II metabolism pathway. Glucuronic acid binds bilirubin, drugs, and toxins to make them water-soluble for excretion. It is an essential detoxification process.

6. Atypical antipsychotic with the least metabolic side effects? (Psychiatry)

Ans: Ziprasidone

Among atypical antipsychotics, ziprasidone has minimal risk of weight gain, dyslipidemia, or insulin resistance. It is preferred when metabolic health is a concern but requires monitoring for QT prolongation.

7. Investigation of choice for CML? (Pathology)

Ans: FISH

CML is diagnosed by detecting the BCR-ABL fusion gene (Philadelphia chromosome). FISH is rapid, highly sensitive, and can detect the translocation even when karyotyping is difficult or unclear.

8. Bee sting with shock: Hypersensitivity type? (Microbiology)

Ans: IgE-mediated reaction

Anaphylaxis after an insect sting is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. Preformed IgE antibodies trigger mast cell degranulation, causing hypotension, bronchospasm, and vascular collapse within minutes.

FMGE Solutions (Dec 2023 Session)

1. Which component of the diaphragm is formed by the dorsal mesentery of the oesophagus? (Anatomy)

Ans: Crus of diaphragm

The crura develop from the dorsal mesentery of the oesophagus during embryology. They anchor the diaphragm to the vertebral column and form the muscular pillars around the oesophagal hiatus.

2. The lateral boundary of Hesselbach’s triangle will be formed by? (Surgery)

Ans: Inferior epigastric vessels

Hesselbach’s triangle is bordered medially by the rectus abdominis, laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament. It is the site of direct inguinal hernias.

3. The maternal component of the placenta is? (Obstetrics)

Ans: Decidua basalis

The decidua basalis is the part of the endometrium where the embryo implants. It contributes to the maternal portion of the placenta and supports fetal–maternal exchange.

4. Surfactant deficiency in a newborn with collapsed alveoli suggests? (Paediatrics)

Ans: Respiratory distress syndrome

RDS occurs due to a deficiency of surfactant, mainly dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine, in premature infants. This leads to alveolar collapse (atelectasis), hypoxemia, and laboured breathing.

5. The brain part responsible for thermoregulation is? (Physiology)

Ans: Hypothalamus

The hypothalamus contains the heat-loss and heat-gain centres. It regulates body temperature through mechanisms like sweating, vasoconstriction, and shivering, maintaining homeostasis.

6. The proteins kinesin, dynein, and myosin are known as? (Biochemistry)

Ans: Molecular motors

These motor proteins convert chemical energy (ATP) into mechanical movement. They transport cellular cargo along microtubules (kinesin, dynein) and drive muscle contraction (myosin).

7. A strict vegetarian antenatal mother is least likely to have a deficiency of? (Biochemistry)

Ans: Vitamin B12

Vitamin B12 is obtained mainly from animal products, so vegetarians are at high risk of deficiency. Since deficiency is common, not least likely question implies all other options would be even more common shortages in pregnancy.

8. Diarrhoea, cheilitis, stomatitis, sun-exposed rash, and glove-and-stocking neuropathy suggest deficiency of? (Biochemistry)

Ans: Niacin deficiency

This presentation describes pellagra, characterised by the 3 dermatitis, diarrhoea, and dementia. The rash typically involves sun-exposed areas (‘Casal’s necklace’) with neurological symptoms as the deficiency worsens.

FMGE 2026 Study Plan Using Solutions

A structured FMGE study plan 2026 helps candidates use FMGE solutions more effectively to improve both accuracy and retention. Instead of passive reading, aspirants should actively analyse solutions, track mistakes, and revise consistently. This approach strengthens conceptual understanding and makes preparation more exam-oriented. Understanding the FMGE difficulty level is equally important while practising previous year questions, as it helps in setting realistic expectations and improving exam strategy.

The table below outlines daily and weekly tasks to help you maximise the benefits of FMGE previous year question solutions and perform better in the exam. While planning your revision, focus more on most scoring topics of FMGE to maximise your marks in limited time.

Following this FMGE preparation strategy consistently will help improve time management, reduce errors, and boost confidence for the final exam.

Common Mistakes Students Make With FMGE Solutions

Many students use FMGE solutions but fail to get the full benefit because of a few common errors. Avoiding these mistakes can significantly improve the score and overall preparation.

• Memorising answers instead of understanding concepts

• Skipping the explanation and focusing only on the final option

• Practising FMGE exam questions without a timer leads to slow exam performance

• Ignoring weak areas and repeating the same mistakes

• Not revising previously solved questions regularly