INI CET May 2026 Question Paper with Detailed Explanations, Memory-Based Questions & Difficulty Level

INI CET May Exam Pattern 2026 (Overview & Details)

Before analysing memory-based questions and detailed explanations, candidates should understand the official INI CET May 2026 exam pattern, which shapes time management, scoring strategy, and overall paper approach.

INI CET May Exam Pattern

INI CET May 2026 Question Paper with Detailed Explanations - Subject-wise

The INI CET May 2026 memory-based question paper with detailed explanations, expert-reviewed answers, and subject-wise solution analysis is provided below for candidates seeking deeper post-exam understanding. Each recalled question includes conceptual breakdowns, correct answer frameworks, and practical reasoning to help aspirants..

This page provides the most comprehensive and up-to-date INI CET May 2026 memory-based question paper with detailed subject-wise questions, correct answers, and concise explanations. These INICET 2026 questions are recalled by candidates who appeared in the May session for postgraduate medical admissions to AIIMS and other centrally funded institutes (CFIs). The question paper covers high-yield topics across Microbiology, Physiology, Biochemistry, Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, Dermatology, Anaesthesia, and Radiology, and will be updated progressively as more memory-based questions are submitted.

Topic: Physiology

Question 1. Increased permeability of glomerular capillaries will lead to the appearance of which of the following in urine?

A) Proteins B) Glucose C) Ketones D) Uric acid

Answer: A) Proteins

Explanation: The glomerular filtration barrier (fenestrated endothelium, glomerular basement membrane, podocyte foot processes with slit diaphragms) normally restricts proteins. Increased permeability — as in nephrotic syndrome or glomerulonephritis — allows albumin and other large proteins to enter the filtrate, causing proteinuria. Glucosuria results from tubular threshold failure, not glomerular permeability changes.

Question 2. Gs receptor is present in:

A) Alpha adrenergic receptor B) Beta adrenergic receptor C) M1 receptor D) M2 receptor

Answer: B) Beta adrenergic receptor

Explanation: Beta-adrenergic receptors (β1, β2, β3) are linked to Gs proteins, which stimulate adenylyl cyclase, raising cAMP and activating PKA to produce positive chronotropic and inotropic effects. Alpha-1 couples to Gq; Alpha-2 couples to Gi. M1 and M3 muscarinic receptors couple to Gq, while M2 couples to Gi (inhibiting adenylyl cyclase and slowing heart rate).

Question 3. Loss of hand–eye coordination is most commonly associated with a lesion of:

A) Temporal lobe B) Parietal lobe C) Occipital lobe D) Frontal lobe

Answer: B) Parietal lobe

Explanation: The posterior parietal cortex integrates somatosensory, visual, and proprioceptive information essential for visuospatial tasks and hand–eye coordination. Parietal lobe lesions cause optic ataxia — inability to use visual information to guide voluntary limb movement — a key component of Balint's syndrome seen with bilateral parieto-occipital lesions.

Question 4. Biphasic flow in the right coronary artery is due to:

A) High pressure in right ventricle B) Low pressure in right ventricle C) Increased aortic pressure D) Increased right ventricular mass

Answer: B) Low pressure in right ventricle

Explanation: The left coronary artery is compressed during systole by high left ventricular pressure, resulting in predominantly diastolic flow. The right coronary artery shows biphasic (both systolic and diastolic) flow because right ventricular pressure is significantly lower and does not significantly compress intramyocardial vessels during systole — a unique feature of the low-pressure right heart.

Question 5. Which of the following transporter activities is increased during oral rehydration therapy in diarrhoea?

A) CFTR B) NHE C) SGLT1 D) Na+–K+ ATPase

Answer: C) SGLT1

Explanation: SGLT1 (Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 1) is the scientific basis of ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution). It co-transports one glucose and two sodium ions across the apical enterocyte membrane, driving water absorption. Crucially, SGLT1 remains functional even in cholera (secretory diarrhea) since it is independent of the cAMP-mediated pathway exploited by cholera toxin.

Topic: Biochemistry

Question 1. Benedict's test is positive with all of the following substances EXCEPT:

A) Glucose B) Fructose C) Sucrose D) Ascorbic acid

Answer: C) Sucrose

Explanation: Benedict's test detects reducing sugars — those possessing a free aldehyde or ketone group. Glucose (aldohexose) and fructose (ketohexose) are reducing sugars; ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) also reduces Benedict's reagent. Sucrose is a non-reducing disaccharide where the glycosidic bond links C1 of glucose and C2 of fructose, locking both reducing ends and preventing reaction with Benedict's reagent.

Question 2. Which of the following statements regarding hormones and their metabolic actions are correct?

A. Insulin increases protein synthesis B. Thyroxine decreases basal metabolic rate C. Insulin decreases blood glucose levels D. Epinephrine increases glycogenolysis E. Glucagon increases gluconeogenesis

A) A, B and C only B) A, C and D only C) A, C, D and E only D) All of the above

Answer: C) A, C, D and E only

Explanation: Insulin increases protein synthesis (A ✓), lowers blood glucose (C ✓). Epinephrine stimulates glycogenolysis via the cAMP–PKA pathway (D ✓). Glucagon stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis (E ✓). However, Thyroxine INCREASES (not decreases) basal metabolic rate by upregulating Na+/K+ ATPase, making statement B incorrect and ruling out "All of the above."

Question 3. Which of the following vitamins/coenzymes plays the most important role in transamination reactions involved in amino acid metabolism?

A) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) B) Pyridoxal phosphate C) NAD D) FAD

Answer: B) Pyridoxal phosphate

Explanation: Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), the active form of Vitamin B6, is the indispensable coenzyme for all aminotransferase (transaminase) reactions. PLP forms a Schiff base with the amino group of the donor amino acid, facilitating amino group transfer to α-ketoglutarate to generate glutamate. TPP participates in oxidative decarboxylation reactions; NAD+ and FAD are redox coenzymes.

Question 4. Which of the following enzymes are active in the dephosphorylated state during glucose metabolism?

A. Glycogen Synthase B. Glycogen phosphorylase C. PFK-2 D. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase

A) A and B B) C and D C) A and C D) B and D

Answer: C) A and C

Explanation: In the dephosphorylated (insulin-stimulated, fed) state, Glycogen Synthase is active (promotes glycogen synthesis) and PFK-2 is active (generates Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, a potent allosteric activator of PFK-1 that drives glycolysis). Conversely, Glycogen Phosphorylase and Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase are active when phosphorylated (glucagon/epinephrine state), promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Question 5. Which of the following amino acid classifications are correctly matched?

A. Uncharged amino acid – Cysteine B. Nonpolar amino acid – Proline C. Basic amino acid – Histidine D. Basic amino acid – Lysine

A) A and B B) C and D C) B and C D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation: All four pairings are correct. Cysteine has a polar but uncharged –SH side chain at physiological pH. Proline is a cyclic imino acid with a nonpolar ring that restricts peptide chain flexibility. Histidine contains an imidazole ring (pKa ~6) that can carry a positive charge near physiological pH, classifying it as basic. Lysine has an ε-amino group (pKa ~10.5) and is firmly classified as basic.

Topic: Effects of Anaesthesia

Question 1. Regarding the hemodynamic effects of halothane anaesthesia, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Halothane causes direct myocardial depression, reducing cardiac output
2. Blood pressure initially falls after induction and subsequently plateaus at a lower level
3. Blood pressure progressively decreases throughout surgery, irrespective of anaesthetic depth
4. Halothane increases myocardial sensitivity to catecholamines, increasing arrhythmia risk

A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 4

Answer: C) 1, 2, 4

Explanation: Halothane directly depresses myocardial contractility (1 ✓), reducing cardiac output. Blood pressure falls initially after induction and then plateaus at a lower level (2 ✓) — it does not progressively decrease irrespective of depth (3 ✗). Halothane sensitises the myocardium to catecholamines (4 ✓), significantly increasing ventricular arrhythmia risk, which is why adrenaline co-administration must be strictly limited during halothane anaesthesia.

Question 2. During a lumbar puncture, the following structures are pierced:

1. Ligamentum flavum
2. Dura mater
3. Interspinous ligament
4. Arachnoid mater
5. Supraspinous ligament

A) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4 B) 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 C) 5 → 1 → 3 → 2 → 4 D) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

Answer: A) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4

Explanation: During lumbar puncture, the needle traverses layers from superficial to deep: Skin → Subcutaneous fat → Supraspinous ligament (5) → Interspinous ligament (3) → Ligamentum flavum (1) → Epidural space → Dura mater (2) → Subdural space → Arachnoid mater (4) → Subarachnoid space (CSF collected here). The mnemonic "SIL-DA" (Supra, Inter, Ligamentum flavum, Dura, Arachnoid) aids recall.

Question 3. A 45-year-old woman undergoes surgery for a parotid swelling under general anaesthesia. Ten minutes after induction, she develops rapid rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2), increasing body temperature, tachycardia, and hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Malignant hyperthermia B) Heat stroke C) Heat exhaustion D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Answer: A) Malignant hyperthermia

Explanation: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a life-threatening pharmacogenetic hypermetabolic crisis triggered by volatile anaesthetics (e.g., halothane, sevoflurane) or succinylcholine. It is caused by mutations in the RYR1 gene (ryanodine receptor), leading to uncontrolled calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The classic triad — rapidly rising EtCO2, hyperthermia, and rigidity appearing minutes after anaesthetic induction — is pathognomonic. Dantrolene is the specific antidote.

Question 4. Which of the following drugs does NOT typically cause respiratory paralysis/depression in overdose?

A) Phenobarbitone B) Opioids C) Thiopentone D) Ketamine

Answer: D) Ketamine

Explanation: Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic (NMDA receptor antagonist) that uniquely preserves spontaneous respiration, airway protective reflexes, and laryngeal tone even at anaesthetic doses. This sets it apart from barbiturates, opioids, and benzodiazepines, all of which cause dose-dependent respiratory depression. Ketamine is therefore the preferred agent for procedural sedation in patients at risk of airway compromise, including paediatric patients and those in resource-limited settings.

Topic: Microbiology

Question 1. A 9-month-old infant presents with intense itching, eczematous skin changes, and multiple papulovesicular lesions involving the palms, soles, and periumbilical region. The clinical image is shown below.

[IMAGE]

Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

A) Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis B) Dermatophyte species (Trichophyton spp.) C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Herpes simplex virus

Answer: A) Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis

Explanation: Infantile scabies has a distinct distribution involving palms, soles, face, scalp, and periumbilical area — regions typically spared in adults. The intense nocturnal pruritus and papulovesicular lesions are caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mites burrowing into the skin and triggering a hypersensitivity reaction. Close contact transmission is the hallmark.

Question 2. A patient with HIV infection presents with headache, fever, and altered sensorium. CSF examination shows budding yeast forms with an unstained capsule on Nigrosin preparation. What is the most likely organism?

A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Candida albicans C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Pneumocystis jirovecii

Answer: A) Cryptococcus neoformans

Explanation: Cryptococcus neoformans appears as budding yeast with a large clear halo (polysaccharide capsule) on India ink or Nigrosin staining. It is the most common cause of fungal meningitis in HIV patients, especially when CD4 count falls below 100 cells/mm³. The capsule is also detected by latex agglutination antigen test in CSF.

Question 3. An epidemiologist studying an outbreak notes that all affected individuals develop symptoms within a short interval, with incidence peaking at nearly the same time. Which of the following diseases is most likely to produce such an epidemic curve?

A) Salmonellosis B) Staphylococcal food poisoning C) Measles D) Typhoid fever

Answer: B) Staphylococcal food poisoning

Explanation: A point-source epidemic curve with a sharp, near-simultaneous peak is characteristic of Staphylococcal food poisoning, as the preformed heat-stable enterotoxin acts within 1–6 hours of ingestion. All exposed individuals fall ill almost simultaneously, unlike propagated-source outbreaks (measles, typhoid), which display a prolonged epidemic curve.

Question 4. A 40-year-old woman presents with malar telangiectasia, skin tightening suggestive of scleroderma, and progressive dyspnea on exertion. Echocardiography reveals a "fish-mouth" appearance of the mitral valve, attributed to chronic rheumatic heart disease. Which microorganism is most likely implicated in the pathogenesis of this valvular lesion?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answer: A) Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus)

Explanation: Rheumatic heart disease results from an autoimmune reaction following Group A Streptococcus pharyngitis. Molecular mimicry between streptococcal M protein and cardiac tissue antigens drives valvular damage, most commonly affecting the mitral valve and producing the characteristic "fish-mouth" stenosis.

Question 5. A 2-month-old infant is brought with multiple erythematous papules, vesicles, and excoriations over the palms, soles, and around the umbilicus for the past 1 week. The baby is irritable and cries excessively, especially at night. Similar lesions are noted over the scalp and face. The mother also reports itching on her own hands.

A) Bullous impetigo B) Infantile scabies C) Atopic dermatitis D) Epidermolysis bullosa

Answer: B) Infantile scabies

Explanation: Infantile scabies involves an atypical distribution including palms, soles, face, scalp, and periumbilical region. Nocturnal pruritus and papulovesicular lesions combined with concurrent itching in a family contact strongly indicate scabies. The intense pruritus is a hypersensitivity reaction to Sarcoptes scabiei mite antigens rather than a direct effect of burrowing.

Topic: Dermatology

Question 1. A neonate is brought with a blistering lesion as shown in the image below.

The baby is feeding normally and has no fever, hypotension, or signs of shock. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome B) Bullous pemphigoid C) Epidermolysis bullosa D) Pemphigus due to transplacental antibodies

Answer: C) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

Explanation: Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) in neonates is caused by exfoliative toxins (ET-A and ET-B) from Staphylococcus aureus, which cleave desmoglein-1 in the superficial epidermis, producing widespread blistering without systemic toxicity (the baby feeds normally, no hypotension). Epidermolysis bullosa is a congenital mechanical fragility disorder due to structural protein gene mutations, present from birth and not toxin-mediated.

Question 2. A patient presents with a painless black necrotic lesion over the heel with surrounding edema, as shown in the image below.

What is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

A) Skin biopsy B) KOH smear C) Gram stain D) Tzanck smear

Answer: A) Skin biopsy

Explanation: A painless black eschar with surrounding edema is the classic presentation of cutaneous anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) or ecthyma gangrenosum (Pseudomonas). Skin biopsy is the definitive investigation for histological identification of the causative organism and characteristic tissue changes. KOH preparation is used for fungi; Tzanck smear for herpetic/pemphigoid lesions; Gram stain provides preliminary bacterial identification but is not confirmatory.

Topic: Radiology

Question 1. An ultrasonography image of the right iliac fossa is given. The patient came after 48 hours of pain. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Surgery B) CECT C) Percutaneous drainage D) USG Guided Drainage

Answer: B) CECT

Explanation: In a patient presenting with right iliac fossa pain after 48 hours — beyond the window for straightforward appendicitis — there is heightened concern for complications such as appendicular mass, perforation, or abscess. When USG findings are equivocal or a complication is suspected, CECT abdomen is the next best step, offering superior sensitivity and specificity for detecting appendicitis, perforation, abscess formation, and alternative diagnoses compared to USG alone.

Topic: Forensic Medicine and Toxicology (FMT)

Question 1. Match the following:

A. Carbon monoxide → 1. Bitter almond smell B. Organophosphorus → 2. Cherry red color C. Cyanide → 3. Garlicky odor D. Phosphorus → 4. Pinpoint pupils with secretions

A) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 B) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 C) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Answer: B) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Explanation: Carbon monoxide (A) forms carboxyhemoglobin, giving skin a cherry red discoloration. Organophosphorus (B) poisoning causes cholinergic excess (SLUDGE syndrome) with pinpoint pupils (miosis) and hypersecretion. Cyanide (C) produces a characteristic bitter almond odor. Phosphorus (D) has a distinctive garlicky smell and can cause luminescent ("glowing") vomitus and stools — "smoking stool syndrome."

Question 2. Burn injury to the face and head in a bomb blast is categorised under:

A) Primary blast injury B) Secondary blast injury C) Tertiary blast injury D) Quaternary blast injury

Answer: D) Quaternary blast injury

Explanation: Blast injuries are classified as: Primary (hollow organ injury from overpressure blast wave), Secondary (fragmentation/shrapnel penetration), Tertiary (body displacement by blast wind causing blunt trauma), and Quaternary (all remaining injuries including burns, toxic inhalation, crush injuries, and flash burns to exposed areas like face and head). Burns from bomb blasts fall under the quaternary category.

Question 3. What is the ideal depth for the pigment deposition in the image?

A) Epidermis B) Superficial layer of dermis C) Deeper layer of dermis D) Beyond the skin

Answer: B) Superficial layer of dermis

Explanation: Permanent tattoo pigment is ideally deposited in the superficial (papillary) dermis. Epidermal pigment is lost with normal keratinocyte desquamation, making it transient. Deeper placement in the reticular dermis or subcutaneous tissue causes pigment to blur and spread over time. Papillary dermal placement ensures longevity and sharp definition of the tattoo for both cosmetic and medicolegal identification purposes.

For more such questions, candidates can download the full paper PDF for the INI CET May 2026 from the table below.

INI CET MAY 2026 FULL PAPER

This INI CET May 2026 question paper is memory-based and compiled from candidate recall. Questions and answers will be updated progressively. For official results and admit cards, visit the AIIMS official website.

INI CET May 2026 First Student Reactions & Paper Pattern Trends

According to early student discussions, expert recall analysis, and community feedback:

• Overall paper difficulty ranged from moderate to difficult
• Assertion-reason questions appeared more frequently than expected
• Obstetrics & Gynaecology showed increased representation
• Histopathology and image-based interpretation carried notable weightage
• Biochemistry featured stronger concept integration
• Many candidates found the paper lengthy due to elimination-heavy answer choices

Strategic Trend:

Compared to previous sessions, INI CET May 2026 appeared less direct and more conceptually strategic, favouring candidates with stronger interdisciplinary preparation.

INI CET May 2026 Difficulty Level: Subject-wise Analysis

INI CET May 2026 demonstrated a noticeable shift toward deeper conceptual application, integrated clinical reasoning, and advanced elimination strategies. While some candidates rated the paper moderate, a significant proportion found it moderately difficult to difficult due to assertion-reason patterns, image-heavy sections, and less reliance on straightforward factual recall.

Major Highlights of INI CET May 2026 Paper

• Overall paper difficulty was slightly higher than recent sessions
• Histopathology contributed major image-based weightage
• Biochemistry included multiple assertion-reason and concept integration questions
• Obstetrics & Gynaecology showed increased prominence
• Matching-type questions remained relatively manageable
• Clinical reasoning was prioritised over rote memorisation

Check Now: INI CET May 2026 Detailed Exam Analysis

INI CET May 2026 Analysis: Subject-Wise Topic Asked

The INI CET May 2026 paper displayed clear subject-wise variation, with some disciplines focusing on conceptual fundamentals while others demanded advanced clinical reasoning and interdisciplinary application. One of the most discussed points among the appearing candidates after the INI CET May 2026 exam was the unexpected rise in clinically integrated questions, along with an increase in the number of problems asked from Obstetrics and Gynaecology. About the paper format, there was a perfect mixture of image-based questions, assertion-reasons, and matching-type questions.

Medicine

Medicine in INI CET May 2026 was heavily concept-driven, requiring advanced diagnostic reasoning, clinical judgment, and image interpretation rather than simple factual recall.

Topics asked:

• Cardiology

• Infectious diseases

• Endocrinology

• Emergency medicine

• ECG and image-based interpretation

Preventive and Social Medicine (PSM)

The PSM was the easiest section in INI CET May 2026 exam. Numerical questions from topics like relative risks and odds ratios were asked.

• Biostatistics basics
• Screening tests
• Vaccination

Biochemistry

Biochemistry emerged as one of the more strategically challenging sections, featuring assertion-reason formats, metabolic integration, enzyme pathways, and conceptual problem-solving over straightforward memorisation. This subject surprised many aspirants. Multiple questions were direct assertion-reason based.

Topics asked:

• Enzyme kinetics

• Hematology

• Vitamins and deficiencies

• Metabolic pathways

Pathology

Pathology maintained significant weightage through histopathological image interpretation, hematology integration, and visually oriented diagnostic reasoning, making it one of the more image-intensive sections.

Topics asked:

• Histopathological image interpretation
• Hematology

Check: INI CET College Predictor

Expected Good Attempts in INI CET May 2026

Due to the paper’s higher conceptual complexity, elimination-heavy options, and strategic difficulty, expected safe attempts may trend slightly lower than previous sessions. Accuracy is likely to play a more decisive role than total attempts.

Many aspirants reported lower confidence despite higher attempts, indicating that precision may significantly influence final rank outcomes.

Expected Safe Attempt Range for INI CET May 2026

Due to higher conceptual difficulty, many aspirants reported lower confidence despite high attempts, suggesting rank may depend more on accuracy than attempt volume alone.

INI CET May 2026 Question Paper: Future Preparation Insights

Analysing the INI CET May 2026 paper can help future aspirants:

• Understand evolving AIIMS question trends
• Strengthen conceptual preparation
• Improve image-based interpretation
• Master assertion-reason solving
• Develop stronger elimination strategies
• Prioritise interdisciplinary revision

Final Strategic Takeaway:

INI CET May 2026 reinforces AIIMS’ growing preference for concept-first, clinically integrated, and strategically demanding paper patterns over rote-based preparation.