JSS University Mysore 2025
NAAC A+ Accredited| Ranked #24 in University Category by NIRF | Applications open for multiple UG & PG Programs
Reproductive Health NEET Questions: Reproductive Health is an important part of the NEET syllabus and covers basic topics such as contraception, sexually transmitted infections (STDs), assisted reproductive technologies (ART), and population control. Maternal health, sterility, and reproductive rights are also covered, which are important in human physiology and public health education. This topic provides a basis for reproductive biology and medical progress. For NEET aspirants, learning Reproductive Health concepts is key to scoring well in Biology and gaining understanding into critical healthcare issues.
Previous years NEET cutoff 2025 for OBC category are:
Year | NEET cutoff scores |
2025 | To be announced |
2024 | 161-127 |
2023 | 136-107 |
2022 | 116-93 |
2021 | 137-108 |
2020 | 146-113 |
2019 | 133-107 |
This article presents PYQs from the last 10 years using the chapter-wise weightage for NEET 2025, difficulty level analysis, and high-yield questions with solutions. Additionally, we offer topic-wise weightage analysis and strategic preparation tips for NEET 2025.
This topic contributes around 4% to 6% to the NEET Biology syllabus, making it a scoring unit. The questions in this section range from direct theory-based to application-oriented questions, requiring a thorough understanding of hormonal regulation, contraception mechanisms, and advancements in reproductive technologies.
Many students struggle with memorizing different contraceptive methods, their mechanisms, and distinguishing between types of ART. However, solving NEET previous year questions paper can help students identify frequently asked concepts, improve their accuracy, and boost confidence in tackling related questions.
To help students learn the importance of Reproductive Health in NEET, we have compiled PYQs from 2015 to 2024, categorizing them by sub-topic, difficulty level, and type of question.
The yearly pattern of Reproductive Health questions in NEET shows that the subject is highly questioned in the exam year by year. Annual questions cover all the main points like contraception, sexually transmitted diseases, and reproductive technology. The yearly preparation of students using these questions informs them about the repeated questions asked in the subject and enables them to study. Old questions with answers help better understand the main concepts and improve performance in the exam.
Year | Contraceptive Methods | Population Control | STDs | ART | Infertility | Maternal & Child Health | Difficulty Level (E/M/H) |
2015 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 3/3/1 |
2016 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 3/3/1 |
2017 | 3 | 1 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 4/3/2 |
2018 | 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 5/3/2 |
2019 | 4 | 2 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 5/4/2 |
2020 | 4 | 2 | 1 | 2 | 2 | 1 | 6/4/2 |
2021 | 5 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 1 | 6/5/2 |
2022 | 5 | 3 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 1 | 7/5/2 |
2023 | 5 | 3 | 2 | 3 | 2 | 1 | 7/6/2 |
2024 | 4 | 3 | 2 | 3 | 2 | 1 | 7/6/2 |
Contraceptive Methods and Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) are the most frequently asked topics.
The difficulty level is moderate, with most questions being easy to medium.
Conceptual, application-based, and factual questions dominate the unit.
Population control and STD-related questions have seen a slight increase in recent years.
Also, Read Section:
High NEET Previous Year Questions (PYQs) on Reproductive Health with answers are extremely useful for exam preparation.The practice of these PYQs with in-depth answers aids students in understanding key concepts appropriately and learning to answer similar questions in the exam.
(Difficulty level - Easy to Medium)
Question 1: Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of the Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks the increasing menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Option 2) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Option 3) A is true, but R is false.
Option 4) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: The correct option is that Option 4 A is false, but R is true.
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure that involves the collection of amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac surrounding the fetus. It is primarily used for genetic testing and detecting chromosomal abnormalities, not specifically for sex determination. Therefore, Assertion A is false.
On the other hand, Reason R is true. The reason for banning amniocentesis for sex determination is to address the increasing problem of female foeticide, which is the selective abortion of female fetuses due to a preference for male children. The ban is aimed at preventing the misuse of prenatal diagnostic techniques for gender-based discrimination.
Since Assertion A is false and Reason R is true, the correct option is 4) A is false, but R is true.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 4. A is false, but R is true.
Question 2: Match List I with List II.
List I | List II | ||
A. | Vasectomy | I. | Oral method |
B. | Coitus interruptus | II. | Barrier method |
C. | Cervical caps | III. | Surgical method |
D. | Saheli | IV. | Natural method |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-
Option 1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Option 2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Option 3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Option 4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Answer: A. Vasectomy - III. Surgical method: A permanent method involving the cutting or sealing of the vas deferens to prevent sperm release.
B. Coitus interruptus - IV. Natural method: Withdrawal of the penis before ejaculation to avoid pregnancy.
C. Cervical caps - II. Barrier method: Dome-shaped devices fitted over the cervix to block sperm entry.
D. Saheli - I. Oral method: A non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill containing Centchroman is used to prevent ovulation.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 2 - A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
Question 3: Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
Option 1) Genital herpes
Option 2) Gonorrhoea
Option 3) Hepatitis B
Option 4) HIV Infection
Answer: Gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. When detected early and treated properly with appropriate antibiotics, gonorrhoea can be completely cured. It is important to seek medical attention and adhere to the prescribed treatment to ensure the effective eradication of the infection. However, it is worth noting that the emergence of antibiotic-resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a growing concern, emphasizing the importance of early detection and appropriate treatment.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 2) Gonorrhoea.
Question 4: In which of the following techniques are the embryos transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
Option 1) ZIFT and IUT
Option 2) GIFT and ZIFT
Option 3) ICSI and ZIFT
Option 4) GIFT and ICSI
Answer: ZIFT - Zygote Intra-Fallopian tube Transfer is a form of assisted reproductive technology (ART). In this technique, we are going to put the zygote, which has started developing into the embryo, in the fallopian tube rather than in the uterus, and we will wait for it to travel the whole length of the fallopian tube and reach the uterus on its own. On the other hand, IUT (Intrauterine transfer) is a technique in which embryos are placed into the uterus of a female with the intent to establish a pregnancy.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1), ZIFT and IUT.
Question 5: Select the option that includes all sexually transmitted diseases.
Option 1) Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
Option 2) Gonorrhea, Malaria, Genital herpes
Option 3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
Option 4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
Answer: 1. Gonorrhea
Cause: Infection by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
How it spreads: Sexual ways (oral, vaginal, anal) and from mother to baby during birth.
Signs for men: It hurts to pee, the penis discharges pus and the testicles might ache.
Signs for women: More discharge from the vagina, pain when urinating.
Other signs: Pain or bleeding from the anus if infected there.
Problems if not treated: Women can get pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), both sexes might become infertile, and it's easier to get HIV.
Medicine: Antibiotics like ceftriaxone are used, but some bacteria are becoming immune.
2. Syphilis
Cause: Bacteria Treponema pallidum causes it.
How it spreads: Sexual contact, mother to baby, and direct skin-to-skin touch.
Stages:
It begins with painless sores (chancres).
- The second stage has rashes, sores elsewhere, and flu symptoms.
- The third stage hides with no symptoms but can cause harm later.
- The advanced stage can damage organs, nerves, and the brain if ignored.
Problems if not treated: Brain and heart issues, baby problems if the mother has them.
Medicine: Penicillin shots at any stage.
3. Genital Herpes
Cause: Viruses HSV-1 or HSV-2 are the culprits.
How it spreads: Through skin contact, sex, and from mother to baby during birth.
What happens: Painful sores on genitals or anus, flu-like symptoms at first.
More issues: Sores come back, the risk of other STDs is higher, and it can affect newborns and the mind.
Treatment: No complete cure, but medicines like acyclovir or valacyclovir help with symptoms and recurrence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1) Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital herpes.
Question 6: Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as :
Option 1) Vault barrier
Option 2) Non-Medicated IUD
Option 3) Copper-releasing IUD
Option 4) Cervical barrier
Answer: The Lippes Loop is an IUD that is not medicated; it was discovered by Dr. Jack Lippes in 1962. It consists of a plastic double "S" shape closely fitting the uterine cavity contours, thus avoiding expulsion. This device works by facilitating the phagocytosis of sperm inside the uterus so that fertilization cannot occur. Although it has been widely used from the 1960s to the 1980s, it is no longer manufactured due to the emergence of other contraceptive methods.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (2), Non-Medicated IUD.
Contraceptive Methods:
Barrier methods: Condoms, diaphragms
Hormonal methods: Pills, implants
Surgical methods: Tubectomy, vasectomy
Natural methods: Rhythm method, withdrawal method
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART):
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs):
Confusing barriers and hormonal methods.
Misidentifying STDs based on causative agents.
Forgetting ART techniques and their applications.
Reproductive Health is a scoring and important unit in NEET Biology. Mastering contraceptive methods, understanding ART, and recognizing key concepts related to STDs and population control will significantly improve accuracy and performance in the exam.
Also Read:
Application Date:17 April,2025 - 15 May,2025
Admit Card Date:13 May,2025 - 18 May,2025
Hello,
As per your mentioned query, No you cannot get admission without NEET in BHMS. As per the eligibility criteria , you have to give NEET exam for getting admission in BHMS course.
To know more , kindly go through the given link:
https://medicine.careers360.com/articles/bhms-admission-without-neet
Revert for further query!
With an EAMCET rank of 4197 and belonging to the BC-B category, you have a good chance of getting a seat in NIMS Hyderabad, but it depends on the course you're aiming for. If you're looking for paramedical or allied health science courses (not MBBS), then yes, you may get a seat. For MBBS, NEET is mandatory, so without it, MBBS is not possible. Keep checking official counselling updates for exact cutoff details and seat allotments.
With 475 marks in NEET 2025 and belonging to the SC category, your expected All India Rank (AIR) might be around 2,43,000 to 2,44,000 based on previous trends. You have a fair chance of getting an MBBS seat in a government medical college under the 15% All India Quota, as the SC cutoff has been close to this score in past years. Still, it depends on this year’s cutoffs, so attend both AIQ and state counselling.
With a NEET 2025 score of 514 in the General category and a Punjab state domicile, securing a Government Medical College (GMC) seat in Punjab is unlikely.
Punjab GMC NEET 2024 Cutoff (General Category)
Based on previous years' data, the closing ranks for General category candidates in Punjab's GMCs were:
GMC Amritsar: Closing rank of 26,020 with a score of 651.
GMC Patiala: Closing rank of 26,434 with a score of 591.
GMC Faridkot: Closing rank of 27,000 with a score of 585.
GMC Mohali: Closing rank of 28,000 with a score of 580.
Hello,
With a NEET score of 355 and belonging to the SC category with Karnataka domicile, securing a seat in a government medical college in Karnataka is unlikely.
In 2024, the cutoff for SC candidates under the state quota was approximately 521 marks. Your score of 355 is significantly below this threshold.
However, you might consider applying to private medical colleges in Karnataka, where the cutoff for SC candidates was around 487 marks in 2024.
Keep in mind that cutoffs can vary each year based on factors like the number of applicants and seat availability. So, you should participate in the counselling process and explore all available options.
You can also use our NEET College Predictor tool to predict which colleges you can get based on your scores or rank.
Hope it helps !
Orthotists and Prosthetists are professionals who provide aid to patients with disabilities. They fix them to artificial limbs (prosthetics) and help them to regain stability. There are times when people lose their limbs in an accident. In some other occasions, they are born without a limb or orthopaedic impairment. Orthotists and prosthetists play a crucial role in their lives with fixing them to assistive devices and provide mobility.
A career in pathology in India is filled with several responsibilities as it is a medical branch and affects human lives. The demand for pathologists has been increasing over the past few years as people are getting more aware of different diseases. Not only that, but an increase in population and lifestyle changes have also contributed to the increase in a pathologist’s demand. The pathology careers provide an extremely huge number of opportunities and if you want to be a part of the medical field you can consider being a pathologist. If you want to know more about a career in pathology in India then continue reading this article.
A Veterinary Doctor diagnoses, treats, and prevents diseases in animals. They perform surgeries, advise on nutrition, and guide animal care and breeding. To become one in India, students must complete a Bachelor’s in Veterinary Science (B.V.Sc) after studying Physics, Chemistry, and Biology in Class 12. The role combines medical expertise with compassion for animal welfare.
Speech therapists are essential medical professionals addressing speech disorders. Whether it's delayed speech in children or difficulties in pronunciation, these experts play a crucial role. This article explores how to become a speech therapist in India, covering courses, colleges, and the responsibilities of this impactful profession.
Gynaecology can be defined as the study of the female body. The job outlook for gynaecology is excellent since there is evergreen demand for one because of their responsibility of dealing with not only women’s health but also fertility and pregnancy issues. Although most women prefer to have a women obstetrician gynaecologist as their doctor, men also explore a career as a gynaecologist and there are ample amounts of male doctors in the field who are gynaecologists and aid women during delivery and childbirth.
The audiologist career involves audiology professionals who are responsible to treat hearing loss and proactively preventing the relevant damage. Individuals who opt for a career as an audiologist use various testing strategies with the aim to determine if someone has a normal sensitivity to sounds or not. After the identification of hearing loss, a hearing doctor is required to determine which sections of the hearing are affected, to what extent they are affected, and where the wound causing the hearing loss is found. As soon as the hearing loss is identified, the patients are provided with recommendations for interventions and rehabilitation such as hearing aids, cochlear implants, and appropriate medical referrals. While audiology is a branch of science that studies and researches hearing, balance, and related disorders.
An oncologist is a specialised doctor responsible for providing medical care to patients diagnosed with cancer. He or she uses several therapies to control the cancer and its effect on the human body such as chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy and biopsy. An oncologist designs a treatment plan based on a pathology report after diagnosing the type of cancer and where it is spreading inside the body.
An anatomist studies the structure of living organisms, especially the human body. They conduct research, teach anatomy, assist in biomedical imaging and forensic analysis, and collaborate on medical advancements. Most work in academic or research settings.
A Narcotics Officer investigates drug use, tracks traffickers, and conducts undercover operations to arrest dealers. They collaborate with government agencies at borders and work with NGOs to raise awareness about drug abuse. This vital role helps reduce illegal activities, making communities safer and limiting the spread of drugs. If you’re committed to law enforcement, this career could be your path.
If we talk about a career as a research associate, it all comes down to one thing - curiosity towards nature and the passion to find answers. A career as a research associate is full of thrill and excitement. However, a research associate also faces a lot of challenges and failures while working on a project. A job of a research associate includes a spectrum of Science as a subject in detail.
A Drug Inspector ensures the quality and safety of medicines by inspecting pharmaceuticals throughout the production, distribution, and sale processes. They ensure drugs meet health standards, preventing unsafe or substandard medicines from reaching consumers. Drug Inspectors are responsible for monitoring compliance with regulations, conducting inspections, and ensuring that products meet required safety and efficacy standards.
A Biotechnologist is a professional who possesses strong knowledge and techniques that are utilised in creating and developing innovative products that improve the quality of human life standards. A biochemist uses biological organisms to create and improve goods and procedures for agriculture, medicine, and sustainability. He or she researches the genetic, chemical, and physical characteristics of cells, tissues, and organisms to determine how they can be used industrially.
A career as R&D Personnel requires researching, planning, and implementing new programs and protocols into their organization and overseeing new products’ development. He or she uses his or her creative abilities to improve the existing products as per the requirements of the target market.
NAAC A+ Accredited| Ranked #24 in University Category by NIRF | Applications open for multiple UG & PG Programs
Accorded Institution of Eminence by MoE, Govt. of India | NAAC A++ Grade | Ranked #4 India by NIRF 2024
Ranked #18 by NIRF, NAAC A++ Accredited | Unmatched clinical exposure with over 7 lakh patients yearly
Accorded Institution of Eminence by MoE, Govt. of India | NAAC A++ Grade | Ranked #4 India by NIRF 2024
Know possible Govt/Private MBBS/BDS Colleges based on your NEET rank
Register for Careers360 NEET Counseling & Admission Guidance Service.