Reproductive Health NEET Questions: Check Previous Year Questions With Solution

Reproductive Health NEET Questions: Check Previous Year Questions With Solution

Edited By Irshad Anwar | Updated on Apr 16, 2025 03:54 PM IST | #NEET
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Reproductive Health NEET Questions: Reproductive Health is an important part of the NEET syllabus and covers basic topics such as contraception, sexually transmitted infections (STDs), assisted reproductive technologies (ART), and population control. Maternal health, sterility, and reproductive rights are also covered, which are important in human physiology and public health education. This topic provides a basis for reproductive biology and medical progress. For NEET aspirants, learning Reproductive Health concepts is key to scoring well in Biology and gaining understanding into critical healthcare issues.

This Story also Contains
  1. Importance of Reproductive Health in NEET
  2. Frequency of Reproductive Health Questions in the Last 10 Years
  3. NEET Reproductive Health PYQ Analysis
  4. Top NEET PYQs of Reproductive Health with Solutions
  5. Important Concepts:
Reproductive Health NEET Questions: Check Previous Year Questions With Solution
Reproductive Health NEET Questions: Check Previous Year Questions With Solution
LiveNEET 2025 Live: NTA NEET answer key soon; updates on result date, cut-off, MBBS admissionMay 14, 2025 | 12:42 PM IST

Previous years NEET cutoff 2025 for OBC category are:

Year

NEET cutoff scores

2025

To be announced

2024

161-127

2023

136-107

2022

116-93

2021

137-108

2020

146-113

2019

133-107




Read More

This article presents PYQs from the last 10 years using the chapter-wise weightage for NEET 2025, difficulty level analysis, and high-yield questions with solutions. Additionally, we offer topic-wise weightage analysis and strategic preparation tips for NEET 2025.

Importance of Reproductive Health in NEET

This topic contributes around 4% to 6% to the NEET Biology syllabus, making it a scoring unit. The questions in this section range from direct theory-based to application-oriented questions, requiring a thorough understanding of hormonal regulation, contraception mechanisms, and advancements in reproductive technologies.

Many students struggle with memorizing different contraceptive methods, their mechanisms, and distinguishing between types of ART. However, solving NEET previous year questions paper can help students identify frequently asked concepts, improve their accuracy, and boost confidence in tackling related questions.

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Frequency of Reproductive Health Questions in the Last 10 Years

To help students learn the importance of Reproductive Health in NEET, we have compiled PYQs from 2015 to 2024, categorizing them by sub-topic, difficulty level, and type of question.

Year-wise Distribution of NEET Reproductive Health PYQs

The yearly pattern of Reproductive Health questions in NEET shows that the subject is highly questioned in the exam year by year. Annual questions cover all the main points like contraception, sexually transmitted diseases, and reproductive technology. The yearly preparation of students using these questions informs them about the repeated questions asked in the subject and enables them to study. Old questions with answers help better understand the main concepts and improve performance in the exam.

Year

Contraceptive Methods

Population Control

STDs

ART

Infertility

Maternal & Child Health

Difficulty Level (E/M/H)

2015

2

1

1

1

1

1

3/3/1

2016

2

1

1

1

1

1

3/3/1

2017

3

1

1

2

1

1

4/3/2

2018

3

2

1

2

1

1

5/3/2

2019

4

2

1

2

1

1

5/4/2

2020

4

2

1

2

2

1

6/4/2

2021

5

2

2

2

2

1

6/5/2

2022

5

3

2

2

2

1

7/5/2

2023

5

3

2

3

2

1

7/6/2

2024

4

3

2

3

2

1

7/6/2

NEET Reproductive Health PYQ Analysis

  • Contraceptive Methods and Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) are the most frequently asked topics.

  • The difficulty level is moderate, with most questions being easy to medium.

  • Conceptual, application-based, and factual questions dominate the unit.

  • Population control and STD-related questions have seen a slight increase in recent years.

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Top NEET PYQs of Reproductive Health with Solutions

High NEET Previous Year Questions (PYQs) on Reproductive Health with answers are extremely useful for exam preparation.The practice of these PYQs with in-depth answers aids students in understanding key concepts appropriately and learning to answer similar questions in the exam.

(Difficulty level - Easy to Medium)

Question 1: Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of the Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.

Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks the increasing menace of female foeticide.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Option 2) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Option 3) A is true, but R is false.

Option 4) A is false, but R is true.

Answer: The correct option is that Option 4 A is false, but R is true.

Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure that involves the collection of amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac surrounding the fetus. It is primarily used for genetic testing and detecting chromosomal abnormalities, not specifically for sex determination. Therefore, Assertion A is false.

On the other hand, Reason R is true. The reason for banning amniocentesis for sex determination is to address the increasing problem of female foeticide, which is the selective abortion of female fetuses due to a preference for male children. The ban is aimed at preventing the misuse of prenatal diagnostic techniques for gender-based discrimination.

Since Assertion A is false and Reason R is true, the correct option is 4) A is false, but R is true.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4. A is false, but R is true.

Question 2: Match List I with List II.


List I
List II
A. VasectomyI. Oral method
B. Coitus interruptusII. Barrier method
C. Cervical capsIII. Surgical method
D. SaheliIV. Natural method

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

Option 1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Option 2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Option 3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Option 4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Answer: A. Vasectomy - III. Surgical method: A permanent method involving the cutting or sealing of the vas deferens to prevent sperm release.
B. Coitus interruptus - IV. Natural method: Withdrawal of the penis before ejaculation to avoid pregnancy.
C. Cervical caps - II. Barrier method: Dome-shaped devices fitted over the cervix to block sperm entry.
D. Saheli - I. Oral method: A non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill containing Centchroman is used to prevent ovulation.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2 - A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

Question 3: Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?

Option 1) Genital herpes

Option 2) Gonorrhoea

Option 3) Hepatitis B

Option 4) HIV Infection

Answer: Gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. When detected early and treated properly with appropriate antibiotics, gonorrhoea can be completely cured. It is important to seek medical attention and adhere to the prescribed treatment to ensure the effective eradication of the infection. However, it is worth noting that the emergence of antibiotic-resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a growing concern, emphasizing the importance of early detection and appropriate treatment.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2) Gonorrhoea.

Question 4: In which of the following techniques are the embryos transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

Option 1) ZIFT and IUT

Option 2) GIFT and ZIFT

Option 3) ICSI and ZIFT

Option 4) GIFT and ICSI

Answer: ZIFT - Zygote Intra-Fallopian tube Transfer is a form of assisted reproductive technology (ART). In this technique, we are going to put the zygote, which has started developing into the embryo, in the fallopian tube rather than in the uterus, and we will wait for it to travel the whole length of the fallopian tube and reach the uterus on its own. On the other hand, IUT (Intrauterine transfer) is a technique in which embryos are placed into the uterus of a female with the intent to establish a pregnancy.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1), ZIFT and IUT.

Question 5: Select the option that includes all sexually transmitted diseases.

Option 1) Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

Option 2) Gonorrhea, Malaria, Genital herpes

Option 3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

Option 4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

Answer: 1. Gonorrhea
Cause: Infection by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
How it spreads: Sexual ways (oral, vaginal, anal) and from mother to baby during birth.
Signs for men: It hurts to pee, the penis discharges pus and the testicles might ache.
Signs for women: More discharge from the vagina, pain when urinating.
Other signs: Pain or bleeding from the anus if infected there.
Problems if not treated: Women can get pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), both sexes might become infertile, and it's easier to get HIV.
Medicine: Antibiotics like ceftriaxone are used, but some bacteria are becoming immune.

2. Syphilis
Cause: Bacteria Treponema pallidum causes it.
How it spreads: Sexual contact, mother to baby, and direct skin-to-skin touch.
Stages:
It begins with painless sores (chancres).
- The second stage has rashes, sores elsewhere, and flu symptoms.
- The third stage hides with no symptoms but can cause harm later.
- The advanced stage can damage organs, nerves, and the brain if ignored.
Problems if not treated: Brain and heart issues, baby problems if the mother has them.
Medicine: Penicillin shots at any stage.

3. Genital Herpes
Cause: Viruses HSV-1 or HSV-2 are the culprits.
How it spreads: Through skin contact, sex, and from mother to baby during birth.
What happens: Painful sores on genitals or anus, flu-like symptoms at first.
More issues: Sores come back, the risk of other STDs is higher, and it can affect newborns and the mind.
Treatment: No complete cure, but medicines like acyclovir or valacyclovir help with symptoms and recurrence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1) Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital herpes.

Question 6: Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as :

Option 1) Vault barrier

Option 2) Non-Medicated IUD

Option 3) Copper-releasing IUD

Option 4) Cervical barrier

Answer: The Lippes Loop is an IUD that is not medicated; it was discovered by Dr. Jack Lippes in 1962. It consists of a plastic double "S" shape closely fitting the uterine cavity contours, thus avoiding expulsion. This device works by facilitating the phagocytosis of sperm inside the uterus so that fertilization cannot occur. Although it has been widely used from the 1960s to the 1980s, it is no longer manufactured due to the emergence of other contraceptive methods.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2), Non-Medicated IUD.

Important Concepts:

Common Mistakes to Avoid:

  • Confusing barriers and hormonal methods.

  • Misidentifying STDs based on causative agents.

  • Forgetting ART techniques and their applications.

Reproductive Health is a scoring and important unit in NEET Biology. Mastering contraceptive methods, understanding ART, and recognizing key concepts related to STDs and population control will significantly improve accuracy and performance in the exam.

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Questions related to NEET

Have a question related to NEET ?

Hello,

As per your mentioned query, No you cannot get admission without NEET in BHMS. As per the eligibility criteria , you have to give NEET exam for getting admission in BHMS course.

To know more , kindly go through the given link:

https://medicine.careers360.com/articles/bhms-admission-without-neet

Revert for further query!

With an EAMCET rank of 4197 and belonging to the BC-B category, you have a good chance of getting a seat in NIMS Hyderabad, but it depends on the course you're aiming for. If you're looking for paramedical or allied health science courses (not MBBS), then yes, you may get a seat. For MBBS, NEET is mandatory, so without it, MBBS is not possible. Keep checking official counselling updates for exact cutoff details and seat allotments.



With 475 marks in NEET 2025 and belonging to the SC category, your expected All India Rank (AIR) might be around 2,43,000 to 2,44,000 based on previous trends. You have a fair chance of getting an MBBS seat in a government medical college under the 15% All India Quota, as the SC cutoff has been close to this score in past years. Still, it depends on this year’s cutoffs, so attend both AIQ and state counselling.



With a NEET 2025 score of 514 in the General category and a Punjab state domicile, securing a Government Medical College (GMC) seat in Punjab is unlikely.


Punjab GMC NEET 2024 Cutoff (General Category)

Based on previous years' data, the closing ranks for General category candidates in Punjab's GMCs were:

GMC Amritsar: Closing rank of 26,020 with a score of 651.

GMC Patiala: Closing rank of 26,434 with a score of 591.

GMC Faridkot: Closing rank of 27,000 with a score of 585.

GMC Mohali: Closing rank of 28,000 with a score of 580.

Hello,

With a NEET score of 355 and belonging to the SC category with Karnataka domicile, securing a seat in a government medical college in Karnataka is unlikely.

In 2024, the cutoff for SC candidates under the state quota was approximately 521 marks.  Your score of 355 is significantly below this threshold.

However, you might consider applying to private medical colleges in Karnataka, where the cutoff for SC candidates was around 487 marks in 2024.

Keep in mind that cutoffs can vary each year based on factors like the number of applicants and seat availability. So, you should participate in the counselling process and explore all available options.

You can also use our NEET College Predictor tool to predict which colleges you can get based on your scores or rank.

Hope it helps !

View All

Column I ( Salivary gland)

 

Column II ( Their location)

Parotids

I

Below tongue

Sub-maxillary / sub-mandibular

Ii

Lower jaw

Sub-linguals

Iii

Cheek

Option: 1

a(i), b(ii) , c(iii)

 


Option: 2

a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

 


Option: 3

a(i), b(iii), c(ii)


Option: 4

a(iii), b(ii), c(i)


Ethyl \; ester \xrightarrow[(excess)]{CH_{3}MgBr} P

the product 'P' will be ,

Option: 1


Option: 2


Option: 3

\left ( C_{2}H_{5} \right )_{3} - C- OH


Option: 4


 

    

           

 Valve name                            

             

Function

    I   Aortic valve     A

Prevents blood from going backward from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

    II   Mitral valve     B

 Prevent blood from flowing backward from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

    III   Pulmonic valve     C

 Prevents backward flow from the aorta into the left ventricle.

    IV   Tricuspid valve     D

 Prevent backward flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

 

Option: 1

I – A , II – B, III – C, IV – D


Option: 2

 I – B , II – C , III – A , IV – D


Option: 3

 I – C , II – D , III – A , IV – B


Option: 4

 I – D , II – A , III – B , IV – C 

 

 


Column A Column B
A

a) Organisation of cellular contents and further cell growth.  

B

b) Leads to formation of two daughter cells.

C

c) Cell grows physically and increase volume proteins,organells.

D

d)  synthesis and replication of DNA.

Match the correct option as per the process shown in the diagram. 

 

 

 

Option: 1

1-b,2-a,3-d,4-c
 


Option: 2

1-c,2-b,3-a,4-d


Option: 3

1-a,2-d,3-c,4-b

 


Option: 4

1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b


0.014 Kg of N2 gas at 27 0C is kept in a closed vessel. How much heat is required to double the rms speed of the N2 molecules?

Option: 1

3000 cal


Option: 2

2250 cal


Option: 3

2500 cal


Option: 4

3500 cal


0.16 g of dibasic acid required 25 ml of decinormal NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. The modecular weight of the acid will be

Option: 1

32


Option: 2

64


Option: 3

128


Option: 4

256


0.5 F of electricity is passed through 500 mL of copper sulphate solution. The amount of copper (in g) which can be deposited will be:

Option: 1

31.75


Option: 2

15.8


Option: 3

47.4


Option: 4

63.5


0.5 g of an organic substance was kjeldahlised and the ammonia released was neutralised by 100 ml 0.1 M HCl. Percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

Option: 1

14


Option: 2

42


Option: 3

28


Option: 4

72


0xone is

Option: 1

\mathrm{KO}_{2}


Option: 2

\mathrm{Na}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{2}


Option: 3

\mathrm{Li}_{2} \mathrm{O}


Option: 4

\mathrm{CaO}


(1) A substance  known as "Smack"

(2) Diacetylmorphine

(3) Possessing a white color

(4) Devoid of any odor

(5) Crystal compound with a bitter taste

(6) Obtained by extracting from the latex of the poppy plant

The above statements/information are correct for:

Option: 1

Morphine


Option: 2

Heroin


Option: 3

Cocaine


Option: 4

Barbiturates


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