NEET 2026 Mock Test Series (Day 2)- Full Paper, Answer Key & Detailed Solutions (Attempt Now)

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 2 – Practice Paper (180 Questions)

This full-length mock test includes 180 NEET-level questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, strictly based on NCERT and previous year trends — helping you focus only on what matters most before the NEET exam.

? Attempt Now: NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 - Full paper, Answer Key & Solutions

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 2: Question Paper Overview & Exam Pattern

This NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 2 is structured to replicate the real exam and help you evaluate your preparation under actual exam conditions.

• Full-length question paper with 180 questions

• Covers Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

• Based on NCERT and previous year trends

• Designed as per the latest NEET difficulty level

• Includes answer key and solutions (available after 5 PM)

Best Strategy to Attempt NEET Mock Test Day 2 Practice Paper Effectively

To get maximum benefit from today’s test, attempt this test with a serious exam mindset rather than casual practice.

• Start the test before 10 AM to match the NEET timing

• Complete the question paper within 3 hours without interruption

• Avoid checking answers during the attempt

• Follow proper time allocation for each section

• Analyse performance only after completing the test

This approach with the NEET daily mock test 2026 PDF helps build exam temperament, focus, and consistency, which are important for scoring high in NEET.

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 2 Question Paper

Attempt the NEET daily mock test 2026 in a strictly timed environment. Do not pause or refer to notes while solving.

NEET 2026 Day 2: Attempt Like the Real Exam

Before you start, follow this strictly:

• Sit in a distraction-free environment

• Attempt all 180 questions in one go

• Do not pause today test

• Do not check answers during the attempt

Recommended Time Split for NEET Daily Mock Test 2026:

• Physics – 50 min

• Chemistry – 45 min

• Biology – 85 min

This is not practice. This is your performance training.

Start NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 2 (Full Question Paper)

Solve all questions carefully. Your goal is not just accuracy — it is consistency under pressure.

Physics Section

Q-1:- A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 x 10^-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:

1) 4 H

2) 3 H

3) 2 H

4) 1 H

Q-2:- Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length; the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now becomes:

1) $\left(\frac{2\mathrm{r}}{3}\right)$

2) ${\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)}^2$

3) $\left(\frac{\mathrm{r}}{\sqrt[3]{2}}\right)$

4) $\left(\frac{2\mathrm{r}}{\sqrt{3}}\right)$

Q-3:- Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants K_P and K_Q, such that K_P > K_Q. They are stretched first by the same amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by the springs W_P and W_Q is related as, in case (a) and case (b), respectively:

1) W_{P =}W_Q; W_P=W_Q

2) W_{P >}W_Q; W_Q >W_P

3) W_{P <}W_Q; W_{Q <}W_P

4) W_P = W_Q; W_P > W_Q

Q-4:- A square surface of side $L$ meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle $\theta$ with the horizontal side of the square as shown in the figure. The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt-m, is

1) Zero

2) EL²

3) ${\mathrm{EL}}^2\cos \theta$

4) ${\mathrm{EL}}^2\sin \theta$

Q-5:- Match List - I (Fundamental Experiment) with List - II (its conclusion) and select the correct option from the choices given below the list :

1) (A) - (i) (B) - (iv) (C) - (iii)

2) (A) - (ii) (B) - (iv) (C) - (iii)

3) (A) - (ii) (B) - (i) (C) - (iii)

4) (A) -(iv) (B) - (iii) (C) - (ii)

Q-6:- A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the small loop is on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their centres is 15 cm. If a current of 2.0 A flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked with bigger loop is:

1) 6.610^-9 weber

2) 9.110^-11 weber

3) 610^-11 weber

4) 3.310^-11 weber

Q-7:- In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slits is wider than the other, so that the amplitude of the light from one slit is double of that from the other slit. If I_m be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase difference is given by :

1)
$\frac{I_m}{9}(4+5\cos \varphi )$

2)
$\frac{I_m}{3}(1+2{\cos }^2\left(\frac{\varphi }{2}\right))$

3)
$\frac{I_m}{5}(1+4{\cos }^2\left(\frac{\varphi }{2}\right))$

4)
$\frac{I_m}{9}(1+8{\cos }^2\left(\frac{\varphi }{2}\right))$

Q-8:- If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required (in eV) to remove an electron from n = 2 is

1) 3.4

2) 0

3) 10.2

4) 6.8

Q-9:- If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will

1) increase by $0.05\mathrm{\%}$

2) increase by $0.2\mathrm{\%}$

3) decrease by $0.2\mathrm{\%}$

4) decrease by $0.05\mathrm{\%}$

Q-10:- If $C_P$ and $C_V$ denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit mass at constant pressure and constant volume respectively, then

1)
$C_p-C_v=\frac{R}{28}$

2)
$C_p-C_v=\frac{R}{14}$

3)
$C_p-C_v=R$

4)
$C_p-C_v=28R$

Q-11:-

A thermodynamic system undergoes the cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is:

1) $P_o{V}_o$

2) $2P_o{V}_o$

3) $\frac{P_o{V}_o}{2}$

4) Zero

Q-12:- An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of an electron. What will be the direction of current if any, induced in the coil?

1) adcb

2) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil

3) No current induced

4) abcd

Q-13:-In the given circuit, the current (in mA) through the zener diode is :

1) 3.3

2) 6.7

3) 2.5

4) 5.5

Q-14:- Three charges 2q,-q,-q are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the centre of the triangle

1)The field is zero but potential is non-zero

2) The field is non-zero but potential is zero

3) Both field and potential are zero

4) Both field and potential are non-zero

Q-15:- A uniform electric field having a magnitude $E_0$ and direction along the positive X-axis exists. If the electric potential V, is zero at X = 0, then, its value at X = +x will be

1)
$V(x)=x^2{E}_0$

2)
$V(x)=-x^2{E}_0$

3)
$V(x)=-x{E}_0$

4)
$V(x)=x{E}_0$

Q-16:-

Two point charges – Q and 2Q are separated by a distance R, neutral point will be obtained at

1) A distance of from – Q charge and lies between the charges

2) A distance of from – Q charge on the left side of it

3) A distance of from 2Q charge on the right side of it

4) A point on the line which passes perpendicularly through the centre of the line joining – Q and 2Q charge.

Q-17:- One Tesla is equal to

1) ${10}^4\text{Gauss}$
2) ${10}^{-4}\text{Gauss}$
3) ${10}^{-3}\text{Gauss}$
4) ${10}^2\text{Gauss}$

Q-18:- $\text{When a certain photosensitive surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of frequency}\nu ,\text{the stopping potential is}-\frac{V_0}{2}.\text{When the surface is illuminated with light of frequency}\frac{\nu }{2},\text{the stopping potential is}-V_0.\text{The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission is:}$

1)
$\frac{5\nu }{3}$

2)
$\frac{3\nu }{2}$

3)
$\frac{4\nu }{3}$

4)
$2\nu$

Q-19:- A conducting circular loop made of a thin wire has area and resistance . It is placed perpendicular to a time-dependent magnetic field The field is uniform in space. Then the net charge (in ) flowing through the loop during is close to :

1) 0.14

2) 7

3) 21

4) 6

Q-20:- In an experiment, the percentage of error that occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B C, and D are 1 %, 2 %, 3 %, and 4 % respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement X , there $X=\frac{A^2{B}^{1/2}}{C^{1/3}{D}^3}$ will be :

1) (3/13) %

2) 16 %

3) - 10 %

4) 10 %

" "Q-21:-

Two liquids of densities ${\rho }_1$ and ${\rho }_2({\rho }_2=2{\rho }_1$ ) are filled up behind a square wall of side 10 m as shown in figure. Each liquid has a height of 5 m . The ratio of the forces due to these liquids exerted on upper part MN to that at the lower part NO is (Assume that the liquids are not mixing ):

1)

1/2

2)

2/3

3)

1/4

4)

1/3

" "Q-22:-

A charged particle is kept at rest on a smooth horizontal surface in a uniform magnetic field ‘B’ that is directed vertically downwards as shown in the figure.

An observer is moving with constant velocity v towards right. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the observer?

1)

Path of the charged particle will be straight line.

2)

Magnetic force on the charged particle is zero.

3)

Magnitude of magnetic force on charged particle is qvB initially.

4)

Both (1) and (3)

" "Q-23:-

A particle is moving along the x-axis under the influence of a force given by At t = 0, the particle is located at and is having zero velocity. It takes 0.5 seconds to reach the origin for the first time. The equation of motion of a particle can be represented by :

1)
$x=3+3\cos \pi t$

2)
$x=3\cos \pi t$

3)
$x=3+3\sin \pi t$

4)
$x=3+3\cos (2\pi t)$

" "Q-24:-

A plano-convex lens of unknown material and unknown focal length is given. With the help of a spherometer, we can measure the,

1)

radius of curvature of the curved surface

2)

aperature of the lens

3)

refractive index of the material

4)

focal length of the lens

" "Q-25:-

A uniform rod is kept at smooth horizontal surface, a constant force is applied on the rod in horizontal direction at end A. Find the ratio of energy stored per unit volume at end A to the energy stored per unit volume in the middle of the rod.

1)

2

2)

4

3)

8

4)

10

" "Q-26:-

A 5 N force is applied on a block of mass 2 kg which moves a distance of 3 m in the direction of the force. The work done by the force is:

1)

10 J

2)

15 J

3)

20 J

4)

25 J

" "Q-27:-

The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration $\frac{4}{3}\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$, in the fourth second -

1)

$\frac{14}{3}\mathrm{m}$

2)

14 m

3)

6 m

4)

15 m

" "Q-28:-

find the projection of vector $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=3\hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}}+\hat{\mathrm{k}}$ on vector $\overrightarrow{B}=\hat{\mathrm{i}}+6\hat{\mathrm{j}}$

1)

$\frac{9}{37}(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+6\hat{\mathrm{j}})$

2)

$\frac{37}{9}(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+6\hat{\mathrm{j}})$

3)

$\frac{1}{3}(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+6\hat{\mathrm{j}})$

4)

$\frac{1}{5}(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+6\hat{\mathrm{j}})$

" "Q-29:-

A rod of mass m is kept suspended in horizontal position as shown. linear mass density of rod varies distance from its left end as ( is constant). Left string is now cut. Torque about point just after the string is cut is-

1)
$\frac{mg\ell }{2}$

2)
$\frac{mg\ell }{3}$

3)
$\frac{mg\ell }{4}$

4)
$\frac{mg\ell }{6}$

" "Q-30:-

The frequency of the radiation emitted by a hydrogen atom for the transition between $\mathrm{n}=2$ and $\mathrm{n}=1$ states is $v_0$. What is the frequency of the radiation emitted by the hydrogen atom for the transition between $n=4$ and $n=1$ state?

1)

$\frac{3v_0}{2}$

2)

$2v_0$

3)

$4v_0$

4)

$\frac{5vo}{4}$

" "Q-31:-

$\text{Two different coils have self-inductance}{L}_1=8,mH,L_2=2,mH.\text{The current in one coil is increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At that time the current, the induced voltage and the energy stored in the first coil are}{i}_1,V_1,\text{and}{W}_1\text{respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at the same instant are}{i}_2,V_2,\text{and}{W}_2\text{respectively. Then,}$

1)
$\frac{W_2}{W_1}=8$

2)
$\frac{W_2}{W_1}=\frac{1}{8}$

3)
$\frac{W_2}{W_1}=4$

4)
$\frac{W_2}{W_1}=\frac{1}{4}$

" "Q-32:-

An orbiting satellite will escape if

1)

its speed is increased by 41%

2)

its speed in the orbit is increased to times its initial value

3)

its kinetic energy is doubled

4)

if it stops moving in the orbit

" "Q-33:-

$\text{The ratio of Earth's orbital angular momentum (about the Sun) to its mass is}4.4\times {10}^{15}{\text{m}}^2{\text{/s. The area enclosed by Earth's orbit is approximately (in m}}^2\text{):}$

Options:

1)
$6.94\times {10}^{22}$

2)
$6.94\times {10}^{23}$

3)
$7.94\times {10}^{22}$

4)
$7.94\times {10}^{23}$

" "Q-34:-

An artificial satellite is describing an equatorial orbit at 3600 km above the earth's surface. Calculate its orbital speed.

1)

6.335 km/sec

2)

7.335 km/sec

3)

8.335 km/sec

4)

9.335 km/sec

" "Q-35:-

The figure given below shows a beam of light converging at point P. When a concave lens of focal length 16 cm is introduced in the path of the beam at a place O shown by a dotted line such that OP becomes the axis of the lens, the beam converges at a distance x from the lens. The value x will be equal to

.

1)

12cm

2)

24/3cm

3)

36/5cm

4)

48/7cm

" "Q-36:-

A circular wire frame of radius is dipped in a soap solution of surface tension . When it is taken out, a thin soap film is formed inside the frame. The force on the frame will be

1) $8\pi \sigma R$

2)
$\pi \sigma R$

3)
$4\pi \sigma R$

4)
$2\pi \sigma R$

" "Q-37:-

$\text{An electron enters an electric field}\overrightarrow{E}=(3\hat{i}+6\hat{j}+2\hat{k}){\text{V m}}^{-1}\text{and a magnetic field}\overrightarrow{B}=(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j})\text{T, with velocity}\overrightarrow{v}=(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}){\text{m s}}^{-1}.\text{The magnitude of the force acting on the electron is (given}e=-1.6\times {10}^{-19}\text{C):}$

1)
$2.02\times {10}^{18}\text{N}$

2)
$5.16\times {10}^{-16}\text{N}$

3)
$3.72\times {10}^{-17}\text{N}$

4)

None of the above

" "Q-38:-

Three identical cells, each having an e.m.f. of 1.5 V and a constant internal resistance of $2.0\mathrm{\Omega }$, are connected in series with a $4.0\mathrm{\Omega }$ resistor R , first as in circuit (i), and secondly as in circuit (ii)

What is the ratio $\frac{\text{Power in}\mathrm{R}\text{in circuit (i)}}{\text{Power in}\mathrm{R}\text{in circuit (ii)}}?$

1)

9.0

2)

7.2

3)

1.8

4)

3.0

" "Q-39:-

Consider a container with a volume of 0.02 m³ that holds a gas at a temperature of 500 K. The gas has a molecular weight (Mm) of 28 g/mol. Calculate the root mean square velocity (v_rms) of the gas molecules.

1)

728.59 m/s

2)

735 m/s

3)

700 m/s

4)

7541.6 m/s

" "Q-40:-

If ${\theta }_1$ and ${\theta }_2$ are the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of $\mathrm{dip}\theta$ is given by:-

1)

${\tan }^2\theta ={\tan }^2{\theta }_1+{\tan }^2{\theta }_2$

2)

${\cot }^2\theta ={\cot }^2{\theta }_1-{\cot }^2{\theta }_2{\cot }^2\theta ={\cot }^2{\theta }_1-{\cot }^2{\theta }_2$

3)

${\tan }^2\theta ={\tan }^2{\theta }_1-{\tan }^2{\theta }_2^2$

4)

${\cot }^2\theta ={\cot }^2{\theta }_1+{\cot }^2{\theta }_2$

" "Q-41:-

The two ends of a stretched wire of length $L$ are fixed at $x=0$ and $x=L$. In one experiment the displacement is $y_1=A\sin \left(\frac{\pi x}{L}\right)\sin \omega t$ and energy is ${\mathrm{E}}_1$ and $$ in another experiment, its displacement $y_2=A\sin \left(\frac{2\pi x}{L}\right)\sin 2\omega t$ is and energy is ${\mathrm{E}}_2$ then

1)

E₂ = E₁

2)

E₂ = 2 E₁

3)

E₂ = 4 E₁

4)

E₂ = 16 E₁

" "Q-42:-

A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a given metal rod. Some heat is developed in it. The heat is doubled when

1)

Both length and radius are doubled

2)

The radius of wire is doubled

3)

The length and radius of wire is halved

4)

The length of wire is doubled

" "Q-43:-

The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of at all currents and a maximum power rating of . What should be the value of the resistor connected in series with the diode for obtaining maximum current?

1)
$1.5,\mathrm{\Omega }$

2)
$5,\mathrm{\Omega }$

3)
$6.67,\mathrm{\Omega }$

4)
$200,\mathrm{\Omega }$

" "Q-44:-

Resistance of a resistor at temperature $t^{\circ }\mathrm{C}$ is ${\mathrm{R}}_{\mathrm{t}}={\mathrm{R}}_0(1+$ at $+\beta {\mathrm{t}}^2)$, where ${\mathrm{R}}_0$ is the resistance at $0^{\circ }\mathrm{C}$. The temperature coefficient of resistance at temperature ${\mathrm{t}}^{\circ }\mathrm{C}$ is

1)

$\frac{(1+at+\beta t^2)}{a+2\beta t}$

2)

$(\mathrm{a}+2\beta \mathrm{t})$

3)

$\frac{a+2\beta t}{(1+at+\beta t^2)}$

4)

$\frac{a+2\beta t}{2(1+at+\beta t^2)}$

" "Q-45:-

If a shunt of 1/10th of the coil resistance is applied to a moving coil galvanometer, its sensitivity becomes

1)

10-fold

2)

11-fold

3)

- fold

4)

- fold

"

Chemistry Section (NEET Level Practice Questions)

Q-1:-

The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows :

1) $\text{Amino acids}\to \text{Proteins}\to \text{DNA}$

2) $\text{DNA}\to \text{Carbohydrates}\to \text{Proteins}$

3) $\text{DNA}\to \text{RNA}\to \text{Proteins}$

4) $\text{DNA}\to \text{RNA}\to \text{Carbohydrates}$

Q-2:-

1)

Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F^- (increasing ionic size)

2)

B < C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

3)

I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

4)

Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

Q-3:-

Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :

1)

Principle quantum number

2)

Magnetic quantum number

3)

Azimutual quantum number

4)

Spin quantum number

Q-4:-

The amount of arsenic pentasulphide that can be obtained when 35.5 g arsenic acid is treated with excess H₂S in the presence of conc. HCl ( assuming 100% conversion) is :

1)

0.50 mol

2)

0.25 mol

3)

0.125 mol

4)

0.333 mol

Q-5:-

Arrange the following amines in the order of increasing basicity.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q-6:-

From the following statements regarding H₂O₂, choose the incorrect statement :

1)

It can act only as an oxidizing agent

2)

It decomposes on exposure to light

3)

It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark

4)

It has to be kept away from dust

Q-7:-

Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes.

1)

Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures $(T\sim 1000,\text{K})$.

2)

Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in action.

3)

Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned.

4)

Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well­ defined active sites.

Q-8:-

According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their

1)

atomic masses

2)

nuclear masses

3)

atomic numbers

4)

nuclear neutron-­proton number ratios.

Q-9:-

The structure of diborane $\left(B_2{H}_6\right)$ contains

1)

four $2c-2e$ bonds and two $3c-2e$ bonds

2)

two $2c-2e$ bonds and four $3c-2e$ bonds

3)

two $2c-2e$ bonds and two $3c-3e$ bonds

4)

four $2c-2e$ bonds and four $3c-2e$ bonds

Q-10:-

The atomic numbers of vanadium (V) chromium (Cr) manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionisation enthalpy?

1)

V

2)

Cr

3)

Mn

4)

Fe

Q-11:-

A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of ${\mathrm{CO}}_2$ and ${\mathrm{N}}_2$. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen $\left(N_2\right)$ in the mixture is:

1)

0.5 atm

2)

0.8 atm

3)

0.9 atm

4)

1 atm

Q-12:-

Four successive members of the first series of the tranisiton metals are listed below. For which one of them the standard potential $\left(E_{M^{2+}/M}^{\circ }\right)$ value has a positive sign?

1)

Co (Z=27)

2)

Ni (Z=28)

3)

Cu (Z=29)

4)

Fe (Z=26)

Q-13:-

$\text{If the pH of a saturated solution of}\mathrm{Ba}(\mathrm{OH})2\text{is}12,\text{the value of its}Ksp\text{is}$

1)

$4.00\times {10}^{-6},M^3$

2) $4.00\times {10}^{-7},M^3$

3) $5.00\times {10}^{-6},M^3$

4) $5.00\times {10}^{-7},M^3$

Q-14:-

Which of the following complexes is used as an anti-cancer agent:

1) $\mathrm{mer}!-![\mathrm{Co}({\mathrm{NH}}_3{)}_3{\mathrm{Cl}}_3]$

2) $\mathrm{cis}!-![{\mathrm{PtCl}}_2({\mathrm{NH}}_3{)}_2]$

3) $\mathrm{cis}!-!{\mathrm{K}}_2[{\mathrm{PtCl}}_2{\mathrm{Br}}_2]$

4) ${\mathrm{Na}}_2[{\mathrm{CoCl}}_4]$

Q-15:-

The total number of tetrahedral voids present in FCC unit cell is

1)

4

2)

6

3)

8

4)

2

Q-16:-

The ratio of cubical void to radius of atom is

1)

0.225

2)

0.732

3)

0.414

4)

1

Q-17:-

Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because:

1)

Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space.

2)

Boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased.

3)

The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material.

4)

Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature.

Q-18:-

$[\mathrm{Co}({\mathrm{NH}}_3{)}_5\mathrm{Br}]{\mathrm{SO}}_4\mathrm{and}[\mathrm{Co}({\mathrm{NH}}_3{)}_5{\mathrm{SO}}_4]\mathrm{Br}\mathrm{are}\mathrm{examples}\mathrm{of}\mathrm{which}\mathrm{type}\mathrm{of}\mathrm{isomerism}?$

1)

Linkage

2)

Geometrical

3)

Ionization

4)

Ionization

Q-19:-

Consider the following statements:

${\text{S}}_1:[{\mathrm{MnCl}}_6{]}^{3-},[{\mathrm{FeF}}_6{]}^{3-}\text{and}[{\mathrm{CoF}}_6{]}^{3-}\text{are paramagnetic having four, five and four unpaired electrons respectively.}$

${\text{S}}_2:\text{Low value of formation constant of a complex indicates its high thermodynamic stability.}$

${\text{S}}_3:\text{The crystal field splitting}{\mathrm{\Delta }}_o,\text{depends upon the field produced by the ligand and charge on the metal ion.}$

Arrange them in the order of true/ false.

1)

T T T

2)

T F T

3)

F T F

4)

T F F

Q-20:-

${\mathrm{Cl}}_2\mathrm{can}\mathrm{oxidize}\mathrm{the}{\mathrm{SO}}_3^{2-}\mathrm{into}$

1) ${\mathrm{SO}}_4^{2-}$

2) $\mathrm{S}$

3) ${\mathrm{SO}}_2$

4 SO₃

Q-21:-

Nitrocellulose is an explosive which is formed by the help of

1)

HNO₃

2)

Cellulose

3)

H₂SO₄

4)

All of these

Q-22:-

Clark's method involves the formation of :

1)

carbonate salts

2)

bicarbonate salts

3)

chloride salts

4)

sulphide salts

Q-23:-

Superoxides of alkali metals when heated with S forms :

1)

Sulfites

2)

Sulfides

3)

Sulphates

4)

All of these

Q-24:-

NaH is an example of:

1)

Electron-rich hydride.

2)

Saline hydride.

3)

Metallic hydride.

4)

Molecular hydride.

Q-25:-

The correct match between items I and II is :

1) $(A)\to (S);(B)\to (R);(C)\to (P)$

2) $(A)\to (Q);(B)\to (R);(C)\to (P)$

3) $(A)\to (R);(B)\to (P);(C)\to (S)$

4) $(A)\to (Q);(B)\to (R);(C)\to (S)$

Q-26:-

The H-P-H angle in PH₃ is smaller than that H-N-H angle in NH₃ because:

1)

Higher electronegativity of nitrogen.

2)

More repulsion between lone pair and bond pair in NH₃ .

3)

Lower electronegativity of nitrogen

4)

None

Q-27:-

Tungsten has a density of 19.35 gcm^-3 and the length of the side of the unit cell is 316 pm. The unit cell in the most important crystalline form of tungsten is the body-centered cubic unit cell. How many atoms of the element does 50g of the element contain?

1) $1.61\times {10}^{23}\text{atoms}$

2) $16.1\times {10}^{23}\text{atoms}$

3) $13.4\times {10}^{23}\text{atoms}$

4) $1.98\times {10}^{23}\text{atoms}$

Q-28:-

Consider the following reaction:

The product 'X' is used :

1)

In protein estimation as an alternative to ninhydrin

2)

in laboratory test for phenols

3)

as food grade colourant

4)

In acid base titration as an indicator

Q-29:-

Solvent extraction or differential extraction is used to separate an organic compound from it's solution in:

1)

Water

2)

Alcohol

3)

Benzene

4)

Ether

Q-30:-

Isotonic solution have same

1)

freezing temperature

2)

osmotic pressure

3)

boiling temperature

4)

vapour pressure

Q-31:-

In the Hoffman's mustard oil test for amines, primary amines give a mustard oil like smelling substance, this substance is

1)

2)

$\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{N}=\mathrm{C}=\mathrm{S}$

3)

4)

Q-32:-

Racemic mixture are optically inactive and they do not rotate the plane of plase polarised light. This is because of

1)

Absence of chiral centres

2)

Internal compensation

3)

External compensation

4)

Presence of symmetry

Q-33:-

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

2)

(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

3)

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

4)

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Q-34:-

Read the following statements and select the incorrect statements from the following:

(1) Sulphuric acid, because of its low volatility can be used to manufacture more non-volatile acids from their corresponding salts.

(2) The sulphuric acid forms two series of salts i.e. normal sulphates and acid sulphates.

(3) Concentrated sulphuric acid is a strong hydrating agent.

(4) Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong reducing agent.

1)

(1), (2) and (3)

2)

(1), (3) and (4)

3)

(2), (3) and (4)

4)

(1) and (4)

Q-35:-

Which of the following properties of colloidal solutions is due to the presence of Brownian motion?

1)

Tyndall effect

2)

Electrophoresis

3)

Coagulation

4)

Osmosis

Q-36:-

Assertion: Gold nanoparticles exhibit unique optical properties due to their size and shape.

Reasoning: The interaction of light with gold nanoparticles results in the phenomenon of surface plasmon resonance.

1)

Both the assertion and reasoning are correct, and the reasoning explains the assertion.

2)

Both the assertion and reasoning are correct, but the reasoning does not explain the assertion.

3)

The assertion is correct, but the reasoning is incorrect.

4)

The assertion is incorrect.

Q-37:-

Smelting of iron ore in a blast furnace involves the formation of a molten mixture known as:

1)

Cast iron

2)

Pig iron

3)

Wrought iron

4)

Steel

Q-38:-

What happens when a neutral atom is ionised into a cation, its

1)

Atomic weight increases

2)

Size increases

3)

Size decreases

4)

None of the above

Q-39:-

Which of the following is correct resonating structure of ${\mathrm{BF}}_3$, ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both 1 and 2

Q-40:-

Here is the clean inline LaTeX version:

$\text{Decomposition of}{\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_2(\mathrm{aq})\text{takes place as:}2{\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_2(\mathrm{aq})\to 2{\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}(\mathrm{l})+{\mathrm{O}}_2(\mathrm{g})$

$\text{It is given that 45 L volume is occupied by 1 mol of the gas and 200 mL of}x\text{M solution of}{\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_2\text{forms 10 L oxygen. Find}x.$

1)

0.2

2)

0.02

3)

2.20

4)

2.5

Q-41:-

The relative humidity at Air is $70\mathrm{\%}$ at ${27}^{\circ }\mathrm{C}$ If the aqueous tension at the same Temperature is 30 MM of Hg .
The Partial pressure of water vapour is the air will be [in MM at ${\mathrm{Hg}}_{\text{]}}$

1)

21.6 MM at Hg

2)

21 MM at Hg

3)

21.5 MM at Hg

4)

21.9 MM at Hg

Q-42:-

A 10 lithe contruncr at$500\times$ contains $({\mathrm{O}}_2[9]$ at beosowo 4 atm and an excess sro E Neglect the volume at solid san?.
The volume of the contend io Now decreased by Mewing the marble Piston filled in the container. The Maxim, volume as the container, ween the bessie of in allows it a Maximum value?

1)

5 L

2)

2.3 L

3)

4 L

4)

3.5 L

Q-43:-

200 g of an ideal gas is kept in a Cylinder 500 L volume at ${27}^{\circ }\mathrm{C}$ under 1 bar Pressure. The Molar mass of gas is ----${\mathrm{gMol}}^{-1}$

1)

9.84

2)

10

3)

9

4)

8.84

Q44. The oxidation state of sulfur in $H_{2}S{O}_4$ is:

(A) +2

(B) +4

(C) +6

(D) −2

Q45. Which of the following is a strong reducing agent?

(A) $NaB{H}_4$

(B) $LiAl{H}_4$

(C) $H_{2}O$

(D) $C{O}_2$

Biology Section (NEET Level Practice Questions)

"Q-1:-

Choose the correct statement.

1)

All mammals are viviparous.

2)

All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.

3)

All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.

4)

All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum.

" "Q-2:-

Spindle fibres attach onto:

1)

Telomere of the chromosome

2)

Kinetochore of the chromosome

3)

Centromere of the chromosome

4)

Kinetosome of the chromosome

" "Q-3:-

In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry the largest amount of urea?

1)

Renal Vein

2)

Dorsal Aorta

3)

Hepatic Vein

4)

Hepatic Portal Vein

" "Q-4:-

You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?

1)

Secondary xylem

2)

Secondary phloem

3)

Protoxylem

4)

Cortical cells

" "Q-5:-

Which one of the following options gives a correct example of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?

1)

2)

3)

4)