NEET 2026 Mock Test Series (Day 3): Full Paper, Answer Key & Detailed Solutions

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 3 – Key Highlights

This full-length Day 3 mock test is designed to simulate the real exam environment and help you evaluate your performance under actual NEET conditions. At this stage, consistent full-length practice is what separates improving scores from stagnant ones. This method is widely followed by top-performing NEET aspirants to build accuracy and confidence under pressure.

• Full-length NEET mock test (180 questions)

• Covers Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

• Based on NCERT concepts and previous year trends

• Aligned with the real NEET difficulty level

• Includes same-day answer key and detailed solutions

If your score did not improve in Day 1 or Day 2, Day 3 is where you start fixing mistakes and stabilising accuracy. Focus on analysis today—not just attempts. This NEET 2026 daily mock test series is exactly what toppers follow in the final days.

How to Attempt NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 3 (Exam Strategy)

To maximise your score improvement with NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 3, follow a strict exam-oriented approach instead of casual solving. Your focus should be on performance, not just completion.

• Attempt the full paper before 10 AM to match actual exam timing

• Complete the test within 3 hours without interruption

• Avoid checking answers or pausing during the attempt

• Review the answer key after 5 PM only

• Analyse mistakes deeply and revise weak topics on the same day

Recommended Time Strategy

• Physics → 50 minutes

• Chemistry → 45 minutes

• Biology → 85 minutes

This same-day practice and analysis cycle is one of the most effective strategies used by NEET toppers to improve accuracy, reduce errors, and stabilise scores in the final days before the exam.

This is not just practice—it is your real NEET 2026 exam simulation. Treat this attempt seriously, because how you perform today reflects your exam readiness.

Also Attempt:

• Attempt Day 1 Full Mock Test - Full Paper, Answer Key & Solutions

• Attempt Day 2 Full Mock Test - Full Paper, Answer Key & Solutions

• NEET 2026 Mock Test Series (Day 1–10) – Complete Practice Plan

Your NEET Mock Test Progress (Day 1 → Day 3)

• Day 1: Understanding the NEET Exam Pattern and baseline performance

• Day 2: Improving accuracy and adapting strategy

• Day 3: Stabilising your score by correcting repeated mistakes

This is the transition phase where preparation starts converting into marks. Your score in this test is a strong indicator of your actual NEET 2026 performance.

How you perform in this test closely reflects your expected NEET 2026 score range.

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 3 Question Paper

Instructions:

• Attempt all questions in a strictly timed environment (3 hours) to simulate the real NEET exam

• Do not pause the test or refer to notes during the attempt

• Avoid checking answers while solving the paper

• Complete the full mock before reviewing the answer key

• Focus on accuracy, time management, and consistency under pressure

Treat this as your real exam attempt—your performance today directly reflects your NEET 2026 readiness.

Biology

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Physics

Q-1: Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speeds of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency of 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]:

1. 350 Hz
2. 361 Hz
3. 411 Hz
4. 448 Hz

Q-2: In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between slits and the screen is 1.0 m and monochromatic light of 600 nm is used. A person near the slits observes the fringe pattern. When slit separation is varied, the pattern disappears for a distance d₀. If angular resolution of the eye is (1°/60), find d₀:

1. 1 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 4 mm

Q-3: A pendulum clock loses 12 s/day at 40°C and gains 4 s/day at 20°C. Find the temperature at which it shows correct time and coefficient of linear expansion (α):

1. 25°C; α = 1.85×10^-5/°C
2. 60°C; α = 1.85×10^-4/°C
3. 30°C; α = 1.85×10^-3/°C
4. 55°C; α = 1.85×10^-2/°C

Q-4: Two radioactive nuclei P and Q decay into stable nucleus R. Initially, P = 4N and Q = N. Half-life of P is 1 min and Q is 2 min. When P and Q become equal, number of R nuclei is:

1. 5N₀/2
2. 2N₀
3. 3N₀
4. 9N₀/2

Q-5: Force F varies with distance as shown. Work done during 12 m displacement is:

1. 13 J
2. 18 J
3. 21 J
4. 26 J

Q-6: For transistor action:

• (a) Base, emitter, collector same size & doping
• (b) Base thin and lightly doped
• (c) Emitter-base forward biased, collector-base reverse biased
• (d) Both junctions forward biased

Correct pair:

1. (d), (a)
2. (a), (b)
3. (b), (c)
4. (c), (d)

Q-7: A red LED emits 0.1 W uniformly. Electric field amplitude at 1 m is:

1. 1.73 V/m
2. 2.45 V/m
3. 5.48 V/m
4. 7.75 V/m

Q-8: A diatomic gas has rms speed 1930 m/s at room temperature. Identify the gas:

1. H₂
2. Cl₂
3. O₂
4. F₂

Q-9: Dielectric constant varies as K(x) = K₀ + λx. Capacitance relation with vacuum capacitance C₀ is:

1. C = (λd / ln(1 + K₀λd)) C₀
2. C = (λ / d ln(1 + K₀λd)) C₀
3. C = (λd / ln(1 + λd/K₀)) C₀
4. C = (λ / d ln(1 + K₀/(λd))) C₀

Q-10: Two wires (same material) in parallel. Length ratio = 4/3, radius ratio = 2/3. Current ratio:

1. 3
2. 1/3
3. 8/9
4. 2

Q-11: Two coaxial solenoids wound over a pipe (area = 10 cm², length = 20 cm) have 300 and 400 turns. Mutual inductance is (μ₀ = 4π × 10^-7 TmA^-1):

"Q-1:- Pick out the correct statement with respect to $\left[\mathrm{Mn}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]^{3-}$ :

1) It is $\mathrm{sp}^3 \mathrm{~d}^2$ hybridised and octahedral

2) It is $\mathrm{sp}^3 \mathrm{~d}^2$ hybridised and tetrahedral

3) It is $\mathrm{d}^2 \mathrm{sp}^3$ hybridised and octahedral

4) It is $\mathrm{dsp}^2$ hybridised and square planar

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" "Q-2:- Which of the following complexes is used to be as anticancer agent ?

1) mer - [Co (NH₃)₃ Cl₃]

2) cis - [Pt Cl₂ (NH₃)₂]

3) cis - K₂[Pt Cl₂ Br₂]

4) Na₂CoCl₄

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" "Q-3:- Which of the statements given below is incorrect?

1) $\mathrm{Cl}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$ is an anhydride of perchloric acid.

2) $\mathrm{O}_3$ molecule is bent

3) ONF is isoelectronic with O₂N⁻

4) OF₂ is an oxide of fluorine

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" "Q-4:- Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?

1) (+) Lactose, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ contains 8 - OH groups

2) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D (+) glucose and D(+) galactose.

3) (+) Lactose is a -glycoside formed by the union of molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D (+) galactose

4) (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation

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" "Q-5:- The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is :

1) K+ > Ca²⁺ > Cl^- > S^2-

2) Ca²⁺ > K+ > S^2- > Cl^-

3) Cl^- > S^2- > Ca²⁺ > K⁺

4) S^2- > Cl^- > K⁺ > Ca²⁺

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Q-6:- For the compounds CH₃Cl, CH₃Br, CH₃I, and CH₃F,

the correct order of increasing C-halogen bond length is :

1) CH₃F < CH₃Cl < CH₃Br < CH₃I

2) CH₃F < CH₃Br < CH₃Cl < CH₃I

3) CH₃F < CH₃I < CH₃Br < CH₃Cl

4) CH₃Cl < CH₃Br < CH₃F < CH₃I

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Q-7:- The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was:

1) Phosgene

2) Methyl isocyanate

3) Methylamine

4) Ammonia

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Q-8:- When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a value

1) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm

2) lightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there

3) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm

4) which depends on the amount of dust in air.

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Q-9:- Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reaction with

1) HCHO

2) $\left(\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}\right)_2$

3) $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CHO}$

4) $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCH}_3$

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Q-10:- Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{MgI} {\text {followed by treatment with }}$ a saturated solution of $\mathrm{NH}_4 \mathrm{Cl}$ gives

1) acetone

2) acetamide

3) 2-­methyl­-2-­propanol

4) acetyl iodide.

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Q-11:- In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it?

1. $\mathrm{H_2O < H_2S < H_2Se < H_2Te}$ : increasing $pK_a$ values
2. $\mathrm{NH_3 < PH_3 < AsH_3 < SbH_3}$ : increasing acidic character
3. $\mathrm{CO_2 < SiO_2 < SnO_2 < PbO_2}$ : increasing oxidising power
4. $\mathrm{HF < HCl < HBr < HI}$ : increasing acidic strength

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Q-12:- Which of the following have Schottky defect ?

1) ZnS

2) NaCl

3) CuBr

4) AgCl

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Q-13:- Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

1) Benzoic acid

2)

Acetanilide

3)

Aniline

4)

Glycine

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" "Q-14:-

Propan-2-ol upon treatment with which reagent will give acetone?

1)

$\mathrm{KMnO}_4 / \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$

2)

PDC

3)

$\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7 / \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$

4)

$\mathrm{KMnO}_4 / \mathrm{NH}_4 \mathrm{Cl}$

" "Q-15:-

Which of the following amines can be obtained by the reduction of oximes using Na in ethanol solvent?

1. $\mathrm{RCH_2NH_2}$
2. $\mathrm{R_2NH}$
3. $\mathrm{R_3N}$
4. $\mathrm{ArNH_2}$

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Q-16:-

The most negative electron gain enthalpy of group 16 element is

1)

S

2)

Se

3)

Te

4)

Po

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" "Q-17:- Which of the following sets of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

1) Boron trifluriode, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4- dichlorobenzene

2) Ammonia, breyllium difluriode ,water, 1,4- dichlorobenzene

3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3- dichlorobenzene

4) Nitrogen trifluoride

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Q-18:- A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

1) Hyperconjugation

2) -I effect of -CH3 groups

3) +R effect of $\mathrm{CH}_3$ groups

4) -R effect of $-\mathrm{CH}_3$ groups

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" "Q-19:- Which of the following alkanes cannot be made in good yield by the Wurtz reaction?

1) n- butane

2) n- Hexane

3) 2,3- Dimethylbutane

4) n- Hepatne

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Q-20:-

The compound used in the treatment of lead poisoning is:

1)

D-penicillamine

2)

Desferrioxamine B

3)

Cis-platin

4)

EDTA

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" "Q-21:-

Which hydride is neutral?

1)

H₂S

2)

H₂O

3)

H₂Se

4)

H₂Te

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Q-22:-

The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 104 is:

1)

Unnilunium

2)

Unniltrium

3)

Unnilquadium

4)

Unnilbium

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Q-23:-

Octet rule cannot be applied to the non- metals after

1)

Carbon

2)

Silicon

3)

Oxygen

4)

Nitrogen

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Q-24:-

Which of the following is an amorphous solid?

1)

Glass

2)

NaCl

3)

AgCl

4)

ZnS

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Q-25:-

Which one of the following statements regarding a dynamic equilibrium is false?

1)

At equilibrium, there is no net change in the system

2)

At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and products stays the same.

3)

At equilibrium, the forward and back reactions cease to occur

4)

At equilibrium, the rates of the forward and back reactions are identical

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Q-26:-

A metal (A) on heating in nitrogen gas gives compound B. B on treatment with gives a colourless gas which when passed through solution gives a dark blue-violet coloured solution. A and B respectively, are :

1. $\mathrm{Na \text{ and } Na_3N}$
2. $\mathrm{Mg \text{ and } Mg_3N_2}$
3. $\mathrm{Mg \text{ and } Mg(NO_3)_2}$
4. $\mathrm{Na \text{ and } NaNO_3}$

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Q-27:-

Consider the following plots of rate constant versus $\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}}$ for four different reactions. Which of the following orders is correct for the activation energies of these reactions ?

1)

$E_b>E_a>E_d>E_c$

2)

$E_a>E_c>E_d>E_b$

3)

$E_b>E_d>E_c>E_a$

4)

$E_c>E_a>E_d>E_b$

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" "Q-28:-

Match the following aspects with the respective metal.

Select the correct option :

1)

(a) - (iii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (i) (d) -(ii)

2)

(a) - (iii) (b) - (i) (c) - (iv) (d) -(ii)

3)

(a) - (ii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (i) (d) -(iii)

4)

(a) - (i) (b) - (iv) (c) - (ii) (d) -(iii)

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Q-29:-

Statement A: Helium belongs to s block but it is placed in p block .

Statement B: Helium has completely filled valence shell.

1)

Both statements are correct and statement B is correct explanation for statement A.

2)

Both statements are correct and statement B is not a correct explanation for statement A.

3)

Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect.

4)

Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct.

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Q-30:-

Elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY and $X Y_2$ . Find the atomic weight of X and Y, if the weight of 0.1 moles of XY is 15g and 0.1 moles of $X Y_2$ is 25g.

1)

X = 50g , Y = 100g

2)

X = 100g , X = 50g

3)

X = 25g , Y = 50g

4)

X = 50g , Y = 25g

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Q-31:-

Assertion: Carbon dioxide $\mathrm{CO}_2$ is a greenhouse gas.

Reason: Carbon dioxide can absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, which can trap heat in the atmosphere.

1)

Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2)

Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3)

The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

4)

The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

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Q-32:-

Which of the following gaseous air pollutants is not emitted directly by human activities, but is formed in the atmosphere as a result of chemical reactions?

1)

Sulfur dioxide $\left(\mathrm{SO}_2\right)$

2)

Carbon monoxide $(\mathrm{CO})$

3)

Nitrogen oxide $\left(N O_x\right)$

4)

Ozone $\left(O_3\right)$

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" "Q-33:-

Assertion: A solution with a higher molality will always exhibit a larger boiling point elevation than a solution with a lower molality.

Reasoning: The boiling point elevation of a solution is directly proportional to the molality of the solution.

1)

Both assertion and reasoning are true, and the reasoning is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2)

Both assertion and reasoning are true, but the reasoning is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3)

Assertion is true, but reasoning is false.

4)

Assertion is false, but reasoning is true.

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Q-34:-

What is the Zeta potential of a colloidal particle?

1)

The potential difference across the Electric Double Layer.

2)

The charge on the surface of the colloidal particle.

3)

The size of the colloidal particle.

4)

The concentration of the colloidal particle in the solution

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Q-35:-

Which of the following statements is true regarding adsorption isotherms?

1)

They show the variation in the amount of adsorbent with pressure at constant temperature

2)

They show the variation in the amount of adsorbent with temperature at constant pressure

3)

They show the variation in the amount of adsorbate with pressure at constant temperature

4)

They show the variation in the amount of adsorbate with temperature at constant pressure

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" "Q-36:-

Which of the following statements is true regarding the constants k and n in the Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

1)

They are independent of the nature of the adsorbent and the gas.

2)

They are independent of the temperature.

3)

They depend on the nature of the adsorbent and the gas.

4)

They depend on the temperature.

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" "Q-37:-

Assertion: Alumina is obtained from bauxite through the Bayer process.

Reasoning: The Bayer process involves the leaching of bauxite with sodium hydroxide solution, followed by the precipitation of aluminum hydroxide, which is then calcined to obtain alumina.

1) Both the assertion and reasoning are true, and the reasoning is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2) Both the assertion and reasoning are true, but the reasoning is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

3) The assertion is true, but the reasoning is false.

4) Both the assertion and reasoning are false.

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Q-38:-

On boiling hard water calcium bicarbonate precipitates out as calcium carbonate but magnesium bicarbonate precipitate out as magnesium hydroxide because

1) The solubility of $\mathrm{CaCO}_3$ is more than $\mathrm{MgCO}_3$

2) The solubility of $\mathrm{MgCO}_3$ is more than that of $\mathrm{CaCO}_3$

3) The solubility of $\mathrm{Mg}(\mathrm{OH})_2$ is less than $\mathrm{Ca}(\mathrm{OH})_2$

4) Both b and c

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Q-39:-

At and 760 torr, 40 % of molecules are dissociated in a given sample of gas. What is the density of the given mixture at equilibrium?

1) 1.48 g/L

2) 2.66 g/L

3) 3.12 g/L

4) 2.25 g/L

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Q-40:-

Which option correctly describes the relationship between $k_1, k_2, k_3$ and $k_4$, where the rate expression for the reaction
$\mathrm{NO(g) + H_2(g) \rightarrow \tfrac{1}{2}N_2(g) + H_2O(g)}$ is expressed as:

$\dfrac{d[N_2]}{dt} = k_1[NO][H_2], \quad \dfrac{d[H_2O]}{dt} = k_2[NO][H_2]$

$-\dfrac{d[NO]}{dt} = k_3[NO][H_2], \quad -\dfrac{d[H_2]}{dt} = k_4[NO][H_2]$

1. $k_1 = k_2 = k_3 = k_4$
2. $2k_1 = k_2 = k_3 = k_4$
3. $k_1 = k_2 = 2k_3 = k_4$
4. $k_1 = k_2 = k_3 = 2k_4$

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Q-41:-

Which of the following alkaline earth metal hydroxides is amphoteric in nature-

1) $\mathrm{Be}(\mathrm{OH})_2$

2) $\mathrm{Ca}(\mathrm{OH})_2$

3) $\mathrm{Sr}(\mathrm{OH})_2$

4) $\mathrm{Ba}(\mathrm{OH})_2$

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Q-42:- For an ideal gas, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Internal energy depends on both temperature and volume
2. Internal energy depends only on temperature
3. Internal energy depends only on pressure
4. Internal energy is always zero

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Q-43:-

The thermal decomposition of a compound follows second-order kinetics. If the rate of reaction is $R$ when the concentration of the reactant is $[A]$, what will be the rate of reaction when the concentration is increased to three times its initial value?

1. $3R$
2. $6R$
3. $9R$
4. $27R$

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Q. 44 The number of unpaired electrons in $\mathrm{[Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}}$ is:

1. 0
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6

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Q. 45 Which of the following reagents converts a primary alcohol into an aldehyde without over-oxidation?

1. $\mathrm{KMnO_4}$
2. $\mathrm{K_2Cr_2O_7}$
3. PCC (Pyridinium chlorochromate)
4. $\mathrm{H_2SO_4}$

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 3 Answer Key & Solutions