NEET 2026 Mock Test Series (Day 1): Full Paper, Answer Key & Detailed Solutions

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 – Key Highlights

This NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 replicates the actual exam experience and helps you assess your preparation under real-time conditions. This structured approach is widely followed by top NEET rankers to improve accuracy and performance under pressure.

• Full-length NEET mock test (180 questions)

• Covers Physics, Chemistry, and Biology

• Based on NCERT and previous year trends

• Matches real NEET difficulty level

• Includes same-day answer key and solutions

How to Attempt NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 (Exam Strategy)

To get the maximum benefit from the NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1, it’s important to follow a disciplined, exam-like approach rather than casual practice. This strategy helps improve accuracy, time management, and real exam performance.

• Attempt the full paper before 10 AM to match the actual exam timing

• Solve the test within 3 hours under strict exam conditions

• Do not check answers or pause during the attempt

• Review the answer key after 5 PM

• Analyse mistakes thoroughly and revise weak areas on the same day

This structured routine creates a same-day improvement cycle, a proven method commonly followed by top NEET rankers to improve scores in the final days.

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 Question Paper

Instructions:

• Attempt all questions in a strictly timed environment (3 hours) without interruptions to simulate the real NEET exam.
• Do not check answers while attempting.
• Attempt the full paper before checking solutions for maximum score improvement.

Physics

Q-1:-

A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x,y) are (2m, 3m) at time t = 0, (6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and (13m, 14m) at time t = 5s. Average velocity vector D from t = 0 to t = 5 s is:

1) 15(13i^+14j^)
2) 73(i^+j^)
3) 2(i^+j^)

4) 115(i^+j^)

Q-2:-

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg to a height of 1 m, 1000 times. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies 3.8×10⁷ J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate. (Take g=9.8 ms⁻²)

1)

2.45×10⁻³ kg

2)

6.45×10⁻³ kg

3)

9.89×10⁻³ kg

4)

12.89×10⁻³ kg

Q-3:-

A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then:

1)

The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus.

2)

The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus.

3)

The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.

4)

The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.

Q-4:- The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit of the hydrogen atom (n=1) is:

$\dfrac{h^2}{\pi^2 m^2 r^3}$

$\dfrac{h^2}{8\pi^2 m^2 r^3}$

$\dfrac{h^2}{4\pi^2 m^2 r^3}$

$\dfrac{h^2}{4\pi m^2 r^3}$

Q-5:-

In a physical balance working on the principle of moments, when 5 mg weight is placed on the left pan, the beam becomes horizontal. Both the empty pans of the balance are of equal mass. Which of the following statements is correct?

1)

Left arm is longer than the right arm

2)

Both the arms are of same length

3)

Left arm is shorter than the right arm

4)

Every object that is weighed using this balance appears lighter than its actual weight.

Q-6:-

A pendulum with time period of $1,\text{s}$ is losing energy due to damping. At a certain instant, its energy is $45,\text{J}$. After completing $15$ oscillations, its energy becomes $15,\text{J}$. The damping constant (in $\text{s}^{-1}$) is:

1) $\dfrac{1}{30}\ln 3$
2) $\dfrac{1}{15}\ln 3$
3) $2$
4) $\ln 3$

12

Q-7:-

The equation of state for a gas is given by $PV = nRT + \alpha V$, where $n$ is the number of moles and $\alpha$ is a positive constant. The initial temperature and pressure of one mole of the gas are $T_0$ and $P_0$, respectively. The work done by the gas when its temperature doubles under isobaric conditions is:

1) $\dfrac{P_0 R T_0}{P_0 - \alpha}$
2) $\dfrac{P_0 R T_0}{P_0 + \alpha}$
3) $P_0 R T_0 \ln 2$
4) $P_0 R T_0$

Q-8:-

A black-coloured solid sphere of radius $R$ and mass $M$ is placed inside a cavity maintained at temperature $T_0$ (vacuum inside). The initial temperature of the sphere is $3T_0$. The specific heat of the material varies as $\alpha T^3$ per unit mass, where $\alpha$ is a constant. The time taken for the sphere to cool down to temperature $2T_0$ is (given $\sigma$ is the Stefan–Boltzmann constant):

1) $\dfrac{M\alpha}{4\pi R^2 \sigma}\ln\left(\dfrac{3}{2}\right)$
2) $\dfrac{M\alpha}{4\pi R^2 \sigma}\ln\left(\dfrac{16}{3}\right)$
3) $\dfrac{M\alpha}{16\pi R^2 \sigma}\ln\left(\dfrac{16}{3}\right)$
4) $\dfrac{M\alpha}{16\pi R^2 \sigma}\ln\left(\dfrac{3}{2}\right)$

Q-9:-

A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of $9,\text{pF}$. The separation between the plates is $d$. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics: one with dielectric constant $k_1 = 3$ and thickness $\dfrac{d}{3}$, and the other with dielectric constant $k_2 = 6$ and thickness $\dfrac{2d}{3}$. The new capacitance of the capacitor is:

1. $20.25,\text{pF}$
2. $1.8,\text{pF}$
3. $45,\text{pF}$
4. $40.5,\text{pF}$

Q-10:-

Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substances during their decay?

1)

protons

2)

neutrinos

3)

helium nuclei

4)

electrons

Q-11:-

The given graph represents V - I Characteristic for a semiconductor device.

Which of the following statement is correct?

1)

It is V - I Characteristic for solar cell where, point A represents open circuit voltage and point B Short circuit current.

2)

It is a for a solar cell, and point B represents open circuit voltage and current, respectively.

3)

It is a for a photodiode and poins A and B represent open circuit voltage and current respectively.

4)

It is a for a LED points And B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively.

Q-12:-

The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the circuit given below, is :

1. $2.4,\mu\text{F}$
2. $4.9,\mu\text{F}$
3. $3.6,\mu\text{F}$
4. $5.4,\mu\text{F}$

Q-13:-

In the given circuit all resistances are of value R ohm each. The equivalent resistance between A and B is :

1)

2R

2)

3R

3)

5R3

4)

5R2

Q-14:-

A solid cylinder of radius R carrying on current I. Find the magnetic field at a point P due to cylinder is P is at r>R

1. $\mu_0 I r$
2. $0$
3. $\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r}$
4. $\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi r}$

Q-15:-

The susceptance of a circuit is

1) 1R

2) 1Z

3) 1X

4) None

Q-16:-

A mirror of radius of curvature 20cm and an object which is placed at a distance of 15cm are both moving with velocity 1ms^-1 and 10ms^-1 . The velocity of image in this situation is

1) 2) 3) 4)

Q-17:-

The efficiency of a practical transformer is (where $P_L$ = power loss):

1. $\dfrac{P_{\text{out}}}{P_{\text{out}} + P_L} \times 100$
2. $\dfrac{P_{\text{out}}}{P_{\text{out}} - P_L} \times 100$
3. $\dfrac{P_{\text{out}} + P_L}{P_{\text{out}}} \times 100$
4. $\dfrac{P_{\text{out}} - P_L}{P_{\text{out}}} \times 100$

Q-18:-

A small mass m is slipping over a frictionless incline made of wood of mass M. The acceleration by which the incline should be pushed so that block m remains stationary w.r.t incline is

1)

23g

2)

g3

3)

g2

4)

32g

Q-19:-

If the coefficient of friction between an insect and a bowl is $\mu$ and the radius of the bowl is $r$, the maximum height to which the insect can crawl up the bowl is:

1. $\dfrac{r}{1+\mu^2}$
2. $\dfrac{r\mu}{1+\mu^2}$
3. $r\left(1 - \dfrac{1}{1+\mu^2}\right)$
4. $\dfrac{r\mu}{1-\mu^2}$

Q-20:-

Who among the following gave first the experimental value of G (Universal gravitational constant)?

1)

Brook Teylor

2)

Copernicus

3)

Cavendish

4)

None of these

Q-21:-

If $5,\text{mg}$ of a liquid at temperature $T$ and specific heat $2s$ is mixed with $5,\text{mg}$ of another liquid at temperature $2T$ and specific heat $3s$, the final temperature of the mixture is:

1. $\dfrac{2T}{3}$
2. $\dfrac{8T}{3}$
3. $\dfrac{8T}{5}$
4. $\dfrac{3T}{2}$

Q-22:-

For an adiabatic process the value of specific heat is

1)

Zero

2)

Infinitely

3)

finite and Positive

4)

A person standing on open ground hears the sound of a jet aeroplane coming from the north at an angle $60^\circ$ with the ground. However, he observes the aeroplane to be vertically above him. If $v$ is the speed of sound, the speed of the aeroplane is:

1. $v$
2. $\dfrac{3v}{2}$
3. $\dfrac{2v}{3}$
4. $\dfrac{v}{2}$

Q-24:-

A potentiometer wire AB having length L and resistance 12r is joined to a cell D of emf ε and internal resistance r. A cell Chaving emf ε2 and internal resistance 3 r is connected. The length AJ is connected with the galvanometer as shown in the fig. shows no deflection is:

1)

1112L

2)

1124L

3)

1324L

4)

512L

Q-25:-

An upright object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a convergent lens of focal length 20 cm. A convergent mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 60 cm on the other side of the lens. The position and size of the final image will be :

1)

20 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the object

2)

20 cm from the convergent mirror, twice the size of the object

3)

40 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the object

4)

40 cm from the convergent lens, same size of the object

Q-26:-

What is the dimension of Mass?

1)

[M]

2)

[L]

3)

[T]

4)

[K]

Q-27:-

If the speed and mass of an object are doubled, which of the following is true?

1)

The momentum of the object is doubled

2)

The momentum of the object is quadrupled.

3)

The momentum remains same.

4)

The momentum is halved.

Q-28:-

Which of the following can be explained by the Huygens principle?

1)

Snell's law

2)

Laws of reflection

3)

Both A and B

4)

None of these

Q-29:-

A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the direction $(\hat{i} + 2\hat{j})$, with its electric field polarized along $\hat{k}$. The correct form of the magnetic field of the wave is (where $B_0$ is a constant):

1. $\vec{B} = B_0(\hat{i} - 2\hat{j}) \cos(\omega t - k(x + 2y))$
2. $\vec{B} = B_0(\hat{j} - 2\hat{i}) \cos(\omega t + k(x + 2y))$
3. $\vec{B} = B_0(\hat{i} + 2\hat{j}) \cos(\omega t - k(x + 2y))$
4. $\vec{B} = B_0 \hat{k} \cos(\omega t - k(x + 2y))$

Q-30:-

In Young's double-slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent courses is doubled, the fringe width becomes -

1)

double

2)

half

3)

four times

4)

one-fourth

Q-31:-

The temperature of a room heated by a heater is $20^\circ\text{C}$ when the outside temperature is $-20^\circ\text{C}$, and it is $10^\circ\text{C}$ when the outside temperature is $-40^\circ\text{C}$. The temperature of the heater is:

1. $40^\circ\text{C}$
2. $60^\circ\text{C}$
3. $100^\circ\text{C}$
4. $75^\circ\text{C}$

Q-32:-

Laws of Electromagnetic induction were discovered by

1)

Chadwick

2)

Faraday

3)

Newton

4)

Einstein

Q-33:-

The weight of an astronaut in an orbiting artificial satellite around Earth is

1)

Zero

2)

Same as on Earth

3)

More than on Earth

4)

Less than on Earth

Q-34:-

Assertion: Balmer series lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Reason:

1)

Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion

2)

Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion

3)

Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect

4)

Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

Q-35:-

A person walks up a stalled escalator in 90 sec. When standing on the same escalator, now moving, he is carried in 60 sec. The time it would take him to walk up the moving escalator will be

1)

27 sec.

2)

72 sec.

3)

18 sec.

4)

36 sec.

Q-36:-

The position of a particle moving along the $x$-axis is given by
$x = 2At^3 + 4Bt^2 + 40Ct + D$.
The numerical values of $A, B, C,$ and $D$ are $1, 4, -2,$ and $5$ respectively. The acceleration of the particle at $t = 1,\text{s}$ is:

1. $24,\text{m/s}^2$
2. $40,\text{m/s}^2$
3. $44,\text{m/s}^2$
4. $49,\text{m/s}^2$

Q-37. What is the charge on an $\alpha$-particle?

1. $4.8 \times 10^{-19},\text{C}$
2. $1.6 \times 10^{-19},\text{C}$
3. $3.2 \times 10^{-19},\text{C}$
4. $6.4 \times 10^{-19},\text{C}$

Q-38:-

Characteristic X-rays of frequency $4.2 \times 10^{18},\text{Hz}$ are produced due to transitions to the $K$-shell in a target material. Using Moseley’s law, determine the atomic number of the target.
(Given: Rydberg constant $R = 1.1 \times 10^{7},\text{m}^{-1}$)

1) Z = 32

2) Z = 42

3) Z = 41

4) Z = 44

Q-39:-

The RMS value of the electric field of sunlight is $720,\text{N/C}$. The average total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is:

1. $3.3 \times 10^{-3},\text{J/m}^3$
2. $4.58 \times 10^{-6},\text{J/m}^3$
3. $6.37 \times 10^{-9},\text{J/m}^3$
4. $81.35 \times 10^{-12},\text{J/m}^3$

Q-40:-

Currents of 3A,1A and 2A flow through the long, Straight and parallel conductors a, b and c respectively as shown: A length 0.5m of wire b experiences a force if

1. $5 \times 10^{-6},\text{N}$, Left to right
2. $5 \times 10^{-6},\text{N}$, Right to left
3. $10 \times 10^{-6},\text{N}$, Right to left
4. $5 \times 10^{-6},\text{N}$, Left to right

Q-41:-

A bar magnet of magnetic moment $\vec{M}$ is placed in a magnetic field of induction $\vec{B}$. The torque acting on it is:

1. $\vec{M} \cdot \vec{B}$
2. $-\vec{M} \cdot \vec{B}$
3. $\vec{M} \times \vec{B}$
4. $\vec{B} \times \vec{M}$

Q-42:-

In a special experiment, angular momentum is an even integral multiple of h2π. The longest possible wavelength emitted by hydrogen in the visible region in the experiment according to Bohr’s model will be:

1) 478,nm
2) 322,nm

3) 32 nm

4) 50 nm

Q-43:-

Ten moles of an ideal gas at a constant temperature of $600,\text{K}$ is compressed from $100,\text{L}$ to $10,\text{L}$. The work done in the process is:

1. $4.11 \times 10^{4},\text{J}$
2. $-4.11 \times 10^{4},\text{J}$
3. $11.4 \times 10^{4},\text{J}$
4. $-11.4 \times 10^{4},\text{J}$

Q-44:-

A uniform spherical shell of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m is rolling with slipping on a level road. find the distance covered by the particle at the point of contact when the shell completes half revolution.

1)

R

2)

2R

3)

3R

4)

4R

Q-45:-

Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

1)

1:1

2)

2:9

3)

1:2

4)

2:3

Chemistry

Q-1:-

Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?

(At no.s. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

1)

Yb²⁺

2)

Ce²⁺

3)

Sm²⁺

4)

Eu²⁺

Q-2:-

Which of the following structures is similar to graphite?

1. $\mathrm{B_2H_6}$
2. $\mathrm{BN}$
3. $\mathrm{B}$
4. $\mathrm{B_4C}$

Q-3:-

An excess of $\mathrm{AgNO_3}$ is added to $100,\text{mL}$ of a $0.01,\text{M}$ solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride, $\mathrm{[Cr(H_2O)_4Cl_2]Cl}$. The number of moles of $\mathrm{AgCl}$ precipitated is:

1. $0.01$
2. $0.001$
3. $0.02$
4. $0.03$

Q-4:-

A metal has a face-centered cubic (fcc) lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is $404,\text{pm}$. The density of the metal is $2.72,\text{g cm}^{-3}$. The molar mass of the metal is:
(Given: Avogadro’s constant $N_A = 6.02 \times 10^{23},\text{mol}^{-1}$)

1. $20,\text{g mol}^{-1}$
2. $40,\text{g mol}^{-1}$
3. $30,\text{g mol}^{-1}$
4. $27,\text{g mol}^{-1}$

Q-5:-

A single compound of the structure

is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q-6:-

Propionic acid with Br₂ | red P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:

1)

2)

CH₂Br - CH₂ - COBr

3)

4)

CH₂ Br - CHBr - COOH

Q-7:-

Of the following sets which one does NOT contain isoelectronic species?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q-8:-

Q. The equilibrium constants $K_{p1}$ and $K_{p2}$ for the reactions
$X \rightleftharpoons 2Y$ and $Z \rightleftharpoons P + Q$, respectively, are in the ratio $1:9$. If the degree of dissociation of $X$ and $Z$ are equal, the ratio of total pressures at equilibrium is:

1. $1:9$
2. $1:36$
3. $1:1$
4. $1:3$

Q-9:-

Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 × 10^-13 . The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as 120 g mol^-1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is

1)

5.0 × 10^-8 g

2)

1.2 x 10^-10 g

3)

1.2 x 10^-9 g

4)

6.2 x 10^-5 g

Q-10:-

If an endothermic reaction is non­-spontaneous at the freezing point of water and becomes feasible at its boiling point, then

1)

ΔH is −ve,ΔS is +ve

2)

ΔH and ΔS both are +ve

3)

ΔH and ΔS both are - ve

4)

ΔH is +ve,ΔS is −ve

Q-11:-

In an experiment it showed that 10 ml of 0.05M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of AgNO₃ , which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element other than chlorine):

1)

X₂Cl

2)

X₂Cl₂

3)

XCl₂

4)

XCl₄

Q-12:-

Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?

1)

Maleic acid

2)

α - amino acids

3)

Lactic acid

4)

Tartaric acid

Q-13:-

Which of the following cannot form azeotropic mixture?

1)

H₂O + C₂H₅OH

2)

n-Hexane + n-heptane

3)

HNO₃ + H₂O

4)

None

Q-14:-

Ethanol is manufactured by the fermentation of:

1)

Molasses

2)

Starch

3)

Both a & b

4)

Glucose

Q-15:-

The number of covalent and ionic bonds in the compound $\mathrm{CH_3MgBr}$ are:

$4,,1$
$5,,0$
$3,,2$
$5,,1$

Q-16:-

Which among the following contains glycerol and rosin (gum)?

1)

Transparent soaps

2)

Shaving soaps

3)

Medicinal Soaps

4)

Floating soaps

Q-17:-

Which if the following antiseptic can be used as mouthwash or gargles ?

1)

Boric acid

2)

Amyl meta cresol

3)

H₂O₂

4)

Hg₂Cl₂

Q-18:-

Coupling reaction involves what mechanism?

1)

nucleophilic substitution

2)

Electrophilic addition

3)

nucleophilic addition

4)

Electrophilic substitution

Q-19:-

X is :

1)

R-H

2) R−NH2+CH4
3) R−NH−CH3
4) R−N=CH2

Q-20:-

Which of the following acid is unstable ?

1)

H₂SO₄

2)

HNO₃

3)

HNO₂

4)

HClO₃

Q-21:-

Hyperconjugation is also known as :

1)

No bond resonance

2) sp3−p conjugation
3) σ-bond resonance

4)

All of these

Q-22:-

Which of the following reaction proceeds nearly to completion ?

1. $\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O \rightleftharpoons H_2CO_3},\quad K_c = 1.7 \times 10^{-2}$
2. $\mathrm{H_2CO_3 \rightleftharpoons HCO_3^- + H^+},\quad K_c = 8.4 \times 10^{-7}$
3. $\mathrm{CaCO_3 \rightleftharpoons Ca^{2+} + CO_3^{2-}},\quad K_c = 8.4 \times 10^{-9}$
4. $\mathrm{H_2 + Br_2 \rightleftharpoons 2HBr}$

Q-23

The common name of tetrachloromethane is:

1) Chloroform
2) D.D.T
3) Allyl chloride
4) Carbon tetrachloride

Q-24

Copper crystallizes in a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice with a unit cell length of 361,pm. What is the radius of a copper atom in pm?

1) 108
2) 128
3) 157
4) 181

An element with atomic number 23 belongs to which period?

1)

3rd period

2)

2nd period

3)

5th period

4)

4th period

Q-26:-

As a result of Schottky defect

1)

There is no effect on density

2)

Density increases

3)

Density decreases

4)

All of the above

Q-27:-

The amount of heat evolved when 1 g equivalent of the acid is completely neutralized by a strong base in a dilute solution is called as:

1)

Heat of neutralization of base

2)

Heat of neutralization of acid

3)

Heat of solution

4)

Heat of dilution

Q-28:-

In the reaction
$\mathrm{Ph{-}MgBr + Ph{-}OH \rightarrow}$ Major product formed is:

1. $\mathrm{Ph{-}O{-}Ph}$
2. $\mathrm{Ph{-}H}$

3)

4)

Q-29:-

Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

1)

Electrolysis

2)

Chromatography

3)

Distillation

4)

Zone refining

Q-30:-

Which of the following particles has more electrons than neutrons

1)

C

2)

F^-

3)

O^2-

4)

Al³⁺

Q-31:-

An element of atomic number 29 belongs to

1)

s - block

2)

p - block

3)

d - block

4)

f - block

Q-32:-

Consider the reaction sequence given below

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q-33:-

Meso compounds are compounds which have chiral centres but also have a mirror image which is super imposable on itself which of the following compound is mesho?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q-34:-

Which of the following statements is true about the polarity of BeCl2 ?

1)

The molecule is polar due to the difference in electronegativity between Be and Cl.

2)

The molecule is polar due to the lone pair of electrons on the central Be atom.

3)

The molecule is nonpolar due to the symmetric arrangement of the two Be-Cl bonds.

4)

The polarity of the molecule cannot be determined without knowing the bond lengths.

Q-35:-

Which one will have the maximum number of molecules of nitrogen?

1)

14 molecules of nitrogen

2)

1.4 grams of nitrogen

3)

14 grams of nitrogen

4)

14 moles of nitrogen

Q-36:-

A unit cell of a crystal has a body-centered cubic (BCC) lattice with an edge length of 3A. What is the volume of the unit cell in A3 ?

1)

9

2)

27

3)

81

4)

108

Q-37:-

Native iron metal forms a water-soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of:

1)

Nitrogen

2)

Oxygen

3)

Carbon dioxide

4)

Argon

Q-38:-

In presence of dil. H₂SO₄, oxalic acid is oxidized by potassium permanganate. The product that acts as an autocatalyst is

1)

MnSO₄

2)

Mn₂O₃

3)

MnO₂

4)

MnO

Q-39:-

The element with highest ionization energy is

1)

He

2)

Ne

3)

Ar

4)

Kr

Q-40:-

In Bosch’s process, Fe₂O₃ acts as

1)

Catalyst

2)

Promoter

3)

One of the products

4)

One of the reactants

Q-41:-

Which among the following is correct for all the alkali metals?

1)

They readily react with halogens to form ionic halides, M+X−

2)

They react with water to form hydroxide and hydrogen

3)

Their chlorides are deliquescent and crystallise as hydrates

4)

Their nitrates decompose into nitrites and oxygen on heating

Q-42:-

Which of the following statements about the froth flotation process is FALSE?

1)

It is used for the concentration of sulfide ores.

2)

The principle involved is the preferential wetting of ore particles by water.

3)

Air bubbles are introduced to carry the mineral particles to the surface.

4)

Froth stabilisers are used to stabilize the froth.

Q-43:-

Consider the reaction:
$\mathrm{N_2 + 3H_2 \rightarrow 2NH_3}$

$2.5$ moles of $\mathrm{N_2}$ and $4$ moles of $\mathrm{H_2}$ are taken in a $10,\text{L}$ flask at $27^\circ\text{C}$. After complete reaction, $\mathrm{N_2}$ is fully converted into $\mathrm{NH_3}$. Then $5,\text{L}$ of water is added to the flask. The pressure developed in the flask is:

1)

7 atm

2)

7.3 atm

3)

6.95 atm

4)

6 atm

Q-44:-

The first ionization energy of magnesium is lower than the first ionization energy of

1)

Li

2)

Na

3)

Ca

4)

Be

Q-45:-

A first order reaction 80% completed in 80 min. The time taken for reactants to decompose to half of their original amount will be

1)≈50,min
2) ≈60,min
3) ≈40,min

4) ≈34,min

Biology

Q-1:-

FAD ⁺ or FADH₂

1)

NADH

2)

ATP

3)

H₂O

4)

ATP

Q-2:-

1990

1)

1975

2)

1981

3)

1985

4)

1981

Q-3:-

Vexillary

1)

Imbricate

2)

Twisted

3)

Valvate

4)

Imbricate

Q-4:-

Sieve elements

1)

Vessel elements

2)

Trichomes

3)

Guard cells

4)

Sieve elements

Q-5:-

All are parasites

1)

All of them have helical symmetry

2)

They have ability ot synthesize nucleic acids and proteins

3)

Antibiotics have no effect on them

4)

All of them have helical symmetry

Q-6:-

(a) & (d)

1)

(a) & (b)

2)

(b) & (c)

3)

(c) & (d)

4)

(a) & (d)

Q-7:-

Flat worms

1)

Sponges

2)

Ctenophores

3)

Corals

4)

Flat worms

Q-8:-

-196^oC

1)

-80^oC

2)

-120^oC

3)

-160^oC

4)

-196^oC

Q-9:-

PEN

1)

Seed

2)

Fruit

3)

PEN

Q-10:-

Totipotency

1)

Electrophoresis

2)

PCR

3)

Electroporation

4)

Electroporation

Q-11:-

Inland and outland ecosystem

1)

Complex and non-complex ecosystem

2)

Estuary and forest ecosystem

3)

Terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem

4)

Terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem

Q-12:-

productivity

1)

Energy flow

2)

Nutrient cycling

3)

All of these

4)

All of these

Q-13:-

Sharks

1)

Lizard

2)

urodela

3)

Urochordata

4)

Lizard

Q-14:-

Filariasis

1)

Amoebiasis

2)

Typhoid

3)

Pneumonia

4)

Filariasis

Q-15:-

Metabolic processes

1)

Provide energy

2)

Prevents dehydration

3)

More than one correct answer

4)

More than one correct answer

Q-16:-

Cardiac

1)

fundus

2)

pylorus

3)

Body

4)

fundus

Q-17:-

206 bones

1)

106 bones

2)

Few cartilages

3)

Both 1 and 3

4)

Both 1 and 3

Q-18:-

Water

1)

Water soluble substances

2)

Formed elements

3)

More than one correct answer

4)

More than one correct answer

Q-19:-

is stored in the urinary bladder

1)

is reabsorbed into the blood

2)

gets collected in the renal pelvis

3)

is lost as sweat

4)

is reabsorbed into the blood

Q-20 Insulin is secreted by which of the following cells?

1. $\alpha$-cells
2. $\gamma$-cells
3. $\delta$-cells
4. $\beta$-cells

Q-21:-

Heart failure

1)

Cardiac arrest

2)

Heart attack

3)

Angina

4)

Heart failure

Q-22:-

Acid, acid

1)

Acidic, basic

2)

Basic, acid

3)

Basic, basic

4)

Acidic, basic

Q-23:-

1- correct, 2 - Incorrect

1)

1 - Incorrect, 2 - Correct

2)

Both correct

3)

Both incorrect

4)

1- correct, 2 - Incorrect

Q-24:-

5th-6th Segment

1)

7th - 8th Segment

2)

12th- 13th Segment

3)

14th - 18th Segment

4)

12th- 13th Segment

Q-25:-

Phloem parenchyma

1)

Albuminous cells

2)

Collenchymatous cells

3)

Idioblast cells

4)

Albuminous cells

Q-26:-

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1)

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

2)

Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct

3)

Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

4)

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q-27:-

If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

1)

If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

2)

If the assertion is true but the reason is false

3)

If both assertion and reason are false

4)

If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Q-28:-

do not produce oxygen

1)

do not conduct photosynthesis

2)

absorb only blue light

3)

function without a light source

4)

do not produce oxygen

Q-29:-

low [Glucose]⇒low osmotic pressure⇒low pH⇒high pCO2

1)

low pH⇒high pCO2⇒low [Glucose]⇒low osmotic pressure

2)

low osmotic pressure⇒high pCO2⇒low pH

3) low osmotic pressure⇒high pCO2⇒low pH

4) high pCO2⇒low pH⇒low [Glucose]⇒low osmotic pressure

Q-30:-

Inhibiting viral packaging directly.

1)

Increasing the binding of antibodies to viruses.

2)

Binding to the virus and agglutinating them.

3)

Restricting viral spread to the neighbouring cells.

4)

Restricting viral spread to the neighbouring cells.

Q-31:-

Inbreeding increases homozygosity

1)

Inbreeding is essential to evolve pure lines in any animal

2)

Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity.

3)

Inbreeding helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of undesirable genes.

4)

Inbreeding helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of undesirable genes.

Q-32:-

Placoid scale

1)

Ventral mouth

2)

Ctenoid scale and ventral mouth

3)

Placoid scale and ventral mouth

4)

Placoid scale and ventral mouth

Q-33:-

Starch; Glucose

1)

Floridian Starch; Amylopectin and Glycogen

2)

Glucose; Amylopectin and Glycogen

3)

Amylopectin; Monosaccharides

4)

Floridian Starch; Amylopectin and Glycogen

Q-34:-

Cladode

1)

Phylloclade

2)

Phyllode

3)

Bulb

4)

Phylloclade

Q-35:-

10th and 11th segment

1)

12th and 13th segment

2)

14th and 16th segment

3)

18th and 19th segment

4)

12th and 13th segment

Q-36:-

High water potential in phloem

1)

Returning of water to sink

2)

Active transport of sucrose to sink

3)

All of these

4)

Returning of water to sink

Q-37:-

Respiratory oxidants

1)

Respiratory reductants

2)

Respiratory products

3)

Respiratory substrates

4)

Respiratory substrates

Q-38:-

Slow growth takes place

1)

Rapid growth occurs

2)

Growth stops

3)

Growth is visible

4)

Rapid growth occurs

Q-39:-

Beneath the tongue

1)

Beneath the ears

2)

Beneath eye orbits

3)

At the jaw angles

4)

At the jaw angles

Q-40:-

Pancreas

1)

Gallbladder

2)

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

3)

Ampulla of vater

4)

Gallbladder

Q-41:-

Secreting

1)

Serotonin

2)

Gastrin

3)

GIP

4)

Gastrin

Q-42:-

Bile

1)

Pancreatic juice

2)

Intestinal juice

3)

All of the above

4)

All of the above

Q-43:-

Proteins, leukocytes and mineral ions

1)

Erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes

2)

Erythrocytes and thrombocytes only

3)

Blood platelets only

4)

Erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes

Q-44:-

Monospermy

1)

Diplospermy

2)

Polyspermy

3)

Triple fertilisation

4)

Polyspermy

Q-45:-

Treponema pallidum

1)

Neisseria gonorrhoea

2)

Human immunodeficiency virus

3)

Hepatitis B virus

4)

Treponema pallidum

Also Check

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 2

NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 Answer Key & Solutions

The NEET 2026 Mock Test Day 1 answer keys are now available on the same day, allowing you to analyse your performance immediately after attempting the test.

After checking your answers, follow a focused analysis approach:

• Identify incorrect and guessed questions to understand where you lost marks
• Review detailed solutions to strengthen concepts and avoid repeating mistakes
• Analyse weak topics and chapters for targeted revision
• Track accuracy and time spent per section
• Revise the same concepts on the same day for better retention

This same-day analysis strategy helps convert mistakes into learning and significantly improves your NEET score.

How This NEET Mock Test Improves Your Score

In the final days before NEET, your score depends more on how well you perform under exam conditions than how much you study. This mock test is designed to sharpen your execution and maximise your final score.

• Improves accuracy by exposing you to real NEET-level questions and reducing silly mistakes
• Builds speed and time management through full-length, timed practice
• Strengthens NCERT-based concepts with application-focused questions
• Identifies weak areas instantly so you can revise the right topics
• Reduces exam anxiety by making you comfortable with real exam pressure

Consistent practice with this mock creates a performance improvement loop, helping you turn preparation into marks.

NEET 2026 Last Days Strategy (Daily Plan)

In the final stretch before NEET, following a structured daily routine can make a significant difference in your score. The goal is to combine practice, analysis, and revision within the same day for maximum retention.

• Morning (Before 10 AM): Attempt a full-length mock test in exam-like conditions
• Afternoon: Analyse mistakes in detail and revise weak topics
• Evening (After 5 PM): Check the answer key and understand the correct solutions
• Night: Revise important concepts, formulas, and frequently mistaken topics.

This routine creates a same-day improvement cycle, helping you quickly fix mistakes, strengthen concepts, and improve your NEET score efficiently.

Why You Should Not Skip NEET Mock Test Practice

Avoiding mock tests in the final phase of NEET preparation can seriously impact your performance. Without regular practice under exam conditions, even strong concepts may not translate into good scores.

Skipping mock tests can lead to:

• Poor retention, even after multiple revisions
• Low accuracy due to a lack of real exam practice
• Weak time management during the actual paper
• Increased exam anxiety and panic under pressure

NEET is not just a test of knowledge - it’s a test of performance, speed, and accuracy. Regular mock practice ensures you are fully prepared to handle the real exam confidently.