Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Sample Paper PDF with Solutions: Download Link

Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Sample Paper PDF Download

Candidates can download the Re-NEET Chemistry Sample Paper 2026 PDF to practice NEET-level questions based on the latest syllabus.

Re-NEET Chemistry 2026 Exam Pattern

The Re- NEET Chemistry Sample paper 2026 is designed for you to use as a practice resource for the medical aspirants to help them to get familiarised with the latest NTA exam pattern and syllabus.

Given below is a detailed overview of the same.

Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Weightage Distribution

Chemistry questions are basically distributed across Physical Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, and Inorganic Chemistry.

All three sections should be prepared equally to maintain an overall balanced score.

Why Should You Solve Re-NEET Chemistry Sample Papers?

The Chemistry sample papers help candidates get familiar with the level of questions asked in NEET.

Along with that, the sample papers help candidates develop conceptual clarity and formula application speed under timed conditions.

Benefits of Solving Chemistry Sample Papers

• Improve time-management ability

• Strengthens concepts

• Identifies weak chapters that require additional revision

• Improves speed and accuracy

Chapter-wise Weightage in Re-NEET Chemistry 2026

With the NEET Chemistry questions being distributed across Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry, there are several chapters that have continuously contributed multiple questions every year.

Most Important Chemistry Chapters for Re-NEET 2026

Every chapter is important for the Re-NEET 2026 syllabus, and contributes in a balanced manner to the exam. Still, there are a few chapters which carry more weightage in terms of the number of questions than others.

Physical Chemistry

• Chemical Kinetics

• Thermodynamics

• Solutions

• Equilibrium

Organic Chemistry

• General Organic Chemistry

• Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

• Amines

• Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

• Biomolecules

Inorganic Chemistry

• Chemical Bonding

• Coordination Compounds

• d and f Block Elements

• p Block Elements

• Periodic Classification

Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Sample Questions with Detailed Solutions

Question 1

Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when $5$ litres of an ideal gas at $10$ atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until the volume is $15$ litres :

(A) Both the heat and work done will be greater than zero

(B) Heat absorbed will be less than zero and work done will be positive

(C) Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero

(D) Work done will be greater than zero and heat will remain zero

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: When an ideal gas expands into a vacuum, it undergoes free expansion. Since the external pressure is zero ($P_{\text{ext}} = 0$), the work done is $W = -P_{\text{ext}} \Delta V = 0$. For an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the internal energy remains unchanged ($\Delta U = 0$). According to the first law of thermodynamics, $\Delta U = q + W$, which means the heat exchanged is also zero ($q = 0$).

Question 2

Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?

A. $[\text{Ne}]3s^{1}$

B. $[\text{Ar}]3d^{3}4s^{2}$

C. $[\text{Kr}]4d^{10}5s^{2}5p^{5}$

D. $[\text{Ar}]3d^{10}4s^{1}$

E. $[\text{Rn}]5f^{0}6d^{2}7s^{2}$

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(A) D and E only

(B) A, C and D only

(C) B and E only

(D) A and C only

Correct Option: (D)

Explanation: Main group elements (representative elements) belong to the s-block and p-block. Configuration A represents sodium ($Na$), an s-block element, and configuration C represents iodine ($I$), a p-block element. Configurations B, D and E belong to d-block or f-block elements. Therefore, A and C are main group elements.

Question 3

The standard heat of formation, in $\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$, of $Ba^{2+}$ is :

[Given: Standard heat of formation of $SO_{4}^{2-}$ ion (aq) $= -216 ,\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$, standard heat of crystallization of $BaSO_{4}(s) = -4.5 ,\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$, standard heat of formation of $BaSO_{4}(s) = -349 ,\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$]

(A) $+133.0$

(B) $+220.5$

(C) $-128.5$

(D) $-133.0$

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: The processes can be written as follows:

Formation of solid barium sulfate:

$\Delta H_f^\circ[BaSO_4(s)] = -349 ,\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$

Crystallization process:

$Ba^{2+}(aq) + SO_4^{2-}(aq) \rightarrow BaSO_4(s)$

$\Delta H_{\text{cryst}}^\circ = -4.5 ,\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$

Using,

$\Delta H_{\text{cryst}}^\circ = \Delta H_f^\circ[BaSO_4(s)] - \left(\Delta H_f^\circ[Ba^{2+}(aq)] + \Delta H_f^\circ[SO_4^{2-}(aq)]\right)$

$-4.5 = -349 - \Delta H_f^\circ[Ba^{2+}(aq)] - (-216)$

$-4.5 = -133 - \Delta H_f^\circ[Ba^{2+}(aq)]$

$\Delta H_f^\circ[Ba^{2+}(aq)] = -128.5 ,\text{kcal mol}^{-1}$

Question 4

Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?

(A) $InI_3 > InI$

(B) $AlCl > AlCl_3$

(C) $TlI > TlI_3$

(D) $TlCl_3 > TlCl$

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Due to the inert pair effect, the stability of the lower oxidation state ($+1$) increases down Group 13. Therefore, for thallium ($Tl$), the $+1$ oxidation state is more stable than the $+3$ oxidation state, making $TlI$ more stable than $TlI_3$.

Question 5

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Hydrated chlorides and bromides of $Ca$, $Sr$ and $Ba$ on heating undergo hydrolysis.

Statement II: Hydrated chlorides and bromides of $Be$ and $Mg$ on heating undergo dehydration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Correct Option: (D)

Explanation: The statements are reversed. Hydrated chlorides and bromides of $Be$ and $Mg$ undergo hydrolysis on heating due to their high polarizing power, whereas hydrated chlorides and bromides of $Ca$, $Sr$ and $Ba$ undergo dehydration without hydrolysis.

Question 6

Which of the following statements are true?

A. Unlike $Ga$ that has a very high melting point, $Cs$ has a very low melting point.

B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of $N$ and $Cl$ are not the same.

C. $Ar$, $K^{+}$, $Cl^{-}$, $Ca^{2+}$ and $S^{2-}$ are all isoelectronic species.

D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of $Na$, $Mg$, $Al$ and $Si$ is $Si > Al > Mg > Na$.

E. The atomic radius of $Cs$ is greater than that of $Li$ and $Rb$.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) C and D only

(B) A, C and E only

(C) A, B and E only

(D) C and E only

Correct Option: (D)

Explanation: Statements C and E are true. All the given species in C have $18$ electrons and are isoelectronic. Statement E is correct because atomic radius increases down the group. Statements A, B and D are incorrect.

Question 7

Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent than chlorine because:

(a) F-F bond has a low enthalpy of dissociation.

(b) Fluoride ion ($F^{-}$) has high hydration enthalpy.

(c) Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than chlorine.

(d) Fluorine has a very small size.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given:

(A) (b) and (c) only

(B) (a) and (b) only

(C) (a) and (c) only

(D) (a) and (d) only

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent mainly because of the low bond dissociation enthalpy of $F_2$ and the very high hydration enthalpy of $F^{-}$ ions.

Question 8

A bulb is rated at $150,\text{W}$, converting $8%$ energy into light. If energy of one photon is $4.42 \times 10^{-19},\text{J}$, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?

(A) $2.71 \times 10^{19}$

(B) $4.06 \times 10^{19}$

(C) $27.2 \times 10^{19}$

(D) $1.35 \times 10^{19}$

Correct Option: (A)

Explanation: Energy converted into light per second:

$150 \times \frac{8}{100} = 12,\text{J s}^{-1}$

Number of photons emitted per second:

$\dfrac{12}{4.42 \times 10^{-19}} = 2.71 \times 10^{19}$

Question 9

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at $\dfrac{5}{36}R_H,\text{cm}^{-1}$.

($R_H$ = Rydberg constant)

Statement II: When the temperature of a blackbody increases, the maximum of the curve (intensity and wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: For the Balmer series, the lowest-energy transition is $n = 3 \rightarrow 2$:

$\bar{\nu} = R_H\left(\frac{1}{2^2} - \frac{1}{3^2}\right) = \frac{5}{36}R_H,\text{cm}^{-1}$

Also, according to Wien's displacement law,

$\lambda_{\max}T = \text{constant}$

Therefore, as temperature increases, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity shifts towards shorter wavelengths. Both statements are correct.

Question 10

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the Wilhelmy's plate method, the plate is kept parallel to the liquid surface.

Statement II: In the Du Noüy ring method, the ring is kept parallel to the liquid surface.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: In the Wilhelmy plate method, the plate is kept perpendicular to the liquid surface, whereas in the Du Noüy ring method, the ring is positioned parallel to the liquid surface.

Question 11

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Correct Option: (A)

Explanation: Acetone-chloroform shows negative deviation due to hydrogen bonding, ethanol-water shows positive deviation, $HNO_3$-water forms a maximum boiling azeotrope, and heptane-octane behaves nearly ideally.

Question 12

Amongst the given options, which of the following molecule/ion is least stable?

(A) $O_2$

(B) $O_2^+$

(C) $O_2^{2-}$

(D) $O_2^-$

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: According to molecular orbital theory, $O_2^{2-}$ has the lowest bond order ($1$), making it the least stable among the given species.

Question 13

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sphalerite is a carbonate ore of zinc.

Statement II: Malachite is a carbonate ore of copper.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Sphalerite is zinc sulphide ($ZnS$), whereas malachite is a basic carbonate ore of copper, $CuCO_3 \cdot Cu(OH)_2$.

Question 14

In a linear plot of $\ln k$ versus $1/T$, the slope is found to be $-6000\ \text{K}$. The activation energy for the reaction is:

Given: $R = 8.314\ \text{J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$

(A) $49.88\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$

(B) $4.98\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$

(C) $498.8\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$

(D) $49.88\ \text{J mol}^{-1}$

Correct Option: (A)

Explanation: Using the Arrhenius equation:

$\text{Slope} = -\dfrac{E_a}{R}$

$E_a = 6000 \times 8.314 = 49884\ \text{J mol}^{-1}$

$E_a = 49.88\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}$

Question 15

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Point defects are the irregularities or deviations from ideal arrangement around a point or an atom in a crystalline substance.

Statement II: Line defects are the irregularities or deviations from ideal arrangement in entire rows of lattice points.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Point defects are localized around a lattice point, while line defects extend along a row of lattice points. Both definitions are correct.

Re-NEET 2026 Expected Difficulty Level for Chemistry

The Chemistry section in Re-NEET 2026 is expected to be moderate in difficulty. Based on previous analysis, Organic Chemistry may contain concept-based, reaction mechanism questions, while Inorganic Chemistry may remain NCERT focused as usual. When it comes to Physical chemistry, this section is expected to include numerical problems which require strong formula application and calculation skills.

Best Books for Re- NEET Chemistry 2026

Here is a detailed guide on the best books and reference resources for Re- NEET Chemistry 2026.