Re-NEET 2026 Most Expected Questions PDF: 250 Physics, Chemistry & Biology Questions for June 21 Re-Exam

Key Findings From Our Analysis

• 900+ questions analysed

• AIPMT 2015, Re-AIPMT 2015, Re-NEET 2024, NEET 2024 and NEET 2026 reviewed

• 250 questions shortlisted

• 30 free preview questions included

• NCERT-based questions dominated previous re-exams

Analysis of previous re-examinations showed that Biology consistently shifted towards NCERT-direct and theory-dominant questions, while Chemistry became the most difficult subject and Physics showed a rise in numerical questions.

Re-NEET 2026 by the Numbers

The Most Surprising Re-NEET Pattern We Found

Among all findings, the biggest surprise was the sharp rise in Physics numericals during re-examinations.

Physics numericals doubled in the Re-NEET 2024 paper. A similar increase was observed in Re-AIPMT 2015.

At the same time, diagram-based questions reduced sharply and Biology became more NCERT-direct.

This suggests that students preparing for Re-NEET 2026 should spend more time solving formula-based questions, statement-based NCERT questions and direct concept applications than relying only on diagram memorisation.

Check now:

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• NEET Re-Exam 2026: Important Chapters, Expected Difficulty & Strategy

• Can You Crack Re-NEET 2026 in 30 Days

• Re-NEET Mock Test 2026 PDF

What Previous Re-Examinations Reveal

• Chemistry became harder in both Re-AIPMT 2015 and Re-NEET 2024.

• Physics numerical questions increased in both re-examinations.

• Biology shifted towards more direct NCERT-based questions.

• Diagram and graph-based questions reduced significantly in re-tests.

• Theory questions remained dominant across all re-examinations.

Why Students Are Searching for Most Expected Questions for Re-NEET 2026

Re-examinations often create uncertainty because students do not know whether the paper will follow the original exam pattern or introduce a different difficulty level. Historical examples such as Re-AIPMT 2015 and the NEET 2024 re-test showed that re-examinations can differ in question selection, chapter emphasis and difficulty distribution.

Re-NEET 2026 Most Expected Questions at a Glance

Questions Prepared From

• NEET 2026

• Re-NEET 2024

• NEET 2024

• Last 10 Years PYQs

• NCERT Line-Based Questions

• High Weightage Chapters

• Frequently Repeated Concepts

Why These 250 Questions Could Be Important for Re-NEET 2026

Unlike a regular NEET examination, re-examinations often show a stronger preference for familiar NCERT concepts, repeated PYQ themes, statement-based questions and direct formula applications. Careers360's analysis found that a limited group of concepts repeatedly resurfaced across Re-AIPMT 2015, Re-NEET 2024 and recent NEET papers.

The 250 questions included in this PDF are built around those recurring concepts. While no prediction can guarantee exact questions, these topics represent some of the highest-probability areas based on historical re-exam trends, NCERT emphasis and chapter-wise weightage analysis.

High-Value Re-NEET 2026 Study Resources for Maximum Score:

• NEET Question Paper

• NEET 2026 Answer with Solution PDF

• Formulas for Re-neet 2026

• NEET 2026 Mock Test Series (Days 1-10)

How Careers360 Identified These Re-NEET 2026 Question Predictions

To prepare this question bank, Careers360 experts analysed question patterns from Re-AIPMT 2015, Re-NEET 2024, NEET 2024, NEET 2026 and previous-year NEET papers.

Selection criteria included:

• Concepts repeated across multiple NEET examinations

• NCERT lines frequently converted into direct questions

• High-weightage chapters based on recent exam trends

• Statement-based and assertion-reason questions

• Frequently repeated Biology diagrams

• Physics formula applications and numerical concepts

• Organic Chemistry reaction patterns repeatedly tested in NEET

More than 900 questions were analysed before shortlisting the final 250 high-probability questions.

Key Re-Exam Trends That Guided These Predictions

Subjects That Changed the Most in Re-Examinations

Re-NEET 2026 Most Expected Questions With Answers & Solutions PDF

These 250 questions were selected after studying recurring chapter patterns, question-type shifts, NCERT dependency trends and subject-wise difficulty changes observed across previous re-examinations. Particular attention was given to chapters that repeatedly gained weightage during re-tests, including Cell: The Unit of Life, Evolution, Biotechnology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Coordination Compounds and Current Electricity.

Students preparing for Re-NEET 2026 can download the most expected questions PDFs for Physics, Chemistry, and Biology from the table below. These PDFs are prepared based on previous year trends, high-weightage chapters, repeated concepts, and important NCERT topics likely to appear in the re-exam.

Download the Complete Re-NEET 2026 Most Expected Questions PDF

Access all 250 high-probability questions, chapter-wise solutions, repeated PYQ concepts, NCERT hotspots and expert-curated revision questions for the June 21 re-examination.

No organisation can predict the exact questions that will appear in Re-NEET 2026. The questions included in this PDF are based on historical question trends, NCERT analysis, repeated PYQ concepts, chapter-wise weightage and previous re-examination patterns. Students should use these questions as a revision and practice resource rather than as a guarantee of exam content.

Re-NEET 2026 Top 30 Most Expected Questions (Free Preview)

The following 30 questions represent a free preview of the complete Re-NEET 2026 Most Expected Questions PDF. These questions have been shortlisted from thousands of NEET and re-exam questions after analysing repeated concepts, chapter weightage, NCERT trends and recent examination patterns.

Many of the concepts covered below have appeared multiple times in previous NEET examinations and remain among the strongest candidates for repetition in Re-NEET 2026.

Re-NEET 2026 Physics Most Expected Questions (With Answers & Solutions)

These Re-NEET 2026 Physics questions are selected from the most repeated NEET concepts and high-weightage chapters like Current Electricity, Electrostatics, Ray Optics, and Semiconductor Electronics. Candidates can also download the complete PDF for chapter-wise practice and quick revision.

Q1. The ratio of distances travelled by a freely falling body during the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second is:
(1) $1:1:1:1$
(2) $1:2:3:4$
(3) $1:4:9:16$
(4) $1:3:5:7$

Correct Answer: (4)

Explanation:
Distance travelled in the $n^{\text{th}}$ second is given by:
$S_n = \frac{g}{2}(2n-1)$

Hence, the ratio is $1:3:5:7$.

Q2. If a soap bubble expands, its radius increases. The pressure inside the bubble:
(1) Becomes equal to atmospheric pressure
(2) Decreases
(3) Increases
(4) Remains the same

Correct Answer: (2)

Explanation:
Excess pressure inside a soap bubble is:
$P = \frac{4T}{r}$

As the radius $r$ increases, pressure decreases.

Q3. With increase in temperature, the electrical resistance:
(1) Decreases for conductors, increases for semiconductors
(2) Increases for both
(3) Decreases for both
(4) Increases for conductors, decreases for semiconductors

Correct Answer: (4)

Explanation:
Conductors have a positive temperature coefficient, while semiconductors have a negative temperature coefficient.

Q4. Plane angle and solid angle:
(1) Have both units and dimensions
(2) Have units but no dimensions
(3) Have dimensions but no units
(4) Have neither units nor dimensions

Correct Answer: (2)

Explanation:
Plane angle and solid angle are dimensionless quantities, but they are expressed in units of radian and steradian respectively.

Q5. In a half-wave rectifier, if the input frequency is $60,\text{Hz}$, the output frequency is:
(1) $120,\text{Hz}$
(2) $0,\text{Hz}$
(3) $30,\text{Hz}$
(4) $60,\text{Hz}$

Correct Answer: (4)

Explanation:
A half-wave rectifier produces one output pulse for every input cycle. Therefore, output frequency remains $60,\text{Hz}$.

Q6. Angle between electric field lines and an equipotential surface is:
(1) $0^\circ$
(2) $45^\circ$
(3) $90^\circ$
(4) $180^\circ$

Correct Answer: (3)

Explanation:
Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.

Q7. A shell initially at rest explodes into three fragments of masses in the ratio $2:2:1$. The two heavier fragments move perpendicular to each other with equal speed $v$. The speed of the lighter fragment is:
(1) $v$
(2) $\sqrt{2}v$
(3) $2\sqrt{2}v$
(4) $4v$

Correct Answer: (3)

Explanation:
Using conservation of momentum:

Resultant momentum of heavier fragments:
$p = \sqrt{(2mv)^2 + (2mv)^2}$

$p = 2mv\sqrt{2}$

For the lighter fragment of mass $m$:
$mv' = 2mv\sqrt{2}$

Therefore,
$v' = 2\sqrt{2}v$

Q8. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of viscous liquid. The speed vs time graph is:
(1) Decreasing
(2) Increasing then constant
(3) Constant
(4) Linear increase

Correct Answer: (2)

Explanation:
Initially, velocity increases with time. After reaching terminal velocity, it becomes constant.

Q9. A long solenoid having $1000$ turns per metre carries a current of $1,\text{A}$. The magnetic field at the centre is:
(1) $6.28\times10^{-4},\text{T}$
(2) $6.28\times10^{-2},\text{T}$
(3) $12.56\times10^{-4},\text{T}$
(4) $12.56\times10^{-2},\text{T}$

Correct Answer: (3)

Explanation:
Magnetic field inside a solenoid:

$B = \mu_0 n I$

$= 4\pi\times10^{-7}\times1000\times1$

$= 12.56\times10^{-4},\text{T}$

Q10. Two conducting spheres have equal charge. The potential is:
(1) Same for both
(2) Larger sphere has higher potential
(3) Smaller sphere has higher potential
(4) Depends on material

Correct Answer: (3)

Explanation:
Potential of a charged sphere is:

$V = \frac{kQ}{R}$

Smaller radius implies higher potential.

Re-NEET 2026 Chemistry Most Expected Questions (With Answers & Solutions)

The following Chemistry questions for Re-NEET 2026 cover important NCERT-based concepts, Organic Chemistry reactions, and Physical Chemistry numericals frequently asked in NEET. Students can download the detailed PDF for more expected questions and exam-oriented preparation.

Q1. For an ideal solution, the correct option is:

(1) $\Delta_{\text{mix}} S = 0$ at constant $T$ and $P$

(2) $\Delta_{\text{mix}} V \neq 0$ at constant $T$ and $P$

(3) $\Delta_{\text{mix}} H = 0$ at constant $T$ and $P$

(4) $\Delta_{\text{mix}} G = 0$ at constant $T$ and $P$

Correct Answer: (3) $\Delta_{\text{mix}} H = 0$ at constant $T$ and $P$

Solution:

An ideal solution is one in which the enthalpy of mixing is zero.

$\Delta_{\text{mix}} H = 0$

The Gibbs free energy of mixing is always negative for spontaneous mixing, and volume change on mixing is also zero. Therefore, option (3) is correct.

Q2. For a given reaction, $\Delta H = 35.5,\text{kJ mol}^{-1}$ and $\Delta S = 83.6,\text{J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$. The reaction is spontaneous at:

(Assume that $\Delta H$ and $\Delta S$ do not vary with temperature.)

(1) $T > 425,\text{K}$

(2) All temperatures

(3) $T > 298,\text{K}$

(4) $T < 425,\text{K}$

Correct Answer: (1) $T > 425,\text{K}$

Solution:

For a spontaneous process:

$\Delta G < 0$

Using the Gibbs free energy equation:

$\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S$

For spontaneity:

$\Delta H - T\Delta S < 0$

$T > \dfrac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}$

$T > \dfrac{35.5 \times 1000}{83.6}$

$T > 424.6,\text{K} \approx 425,\text{K}$

Hence, the reaction is spontaneous when:

$T > 425,\text{K}$

Q3. The rate constant for a first-order reaction is $4.606 \times 10^{-3},\text{s}^{-1}$. The time required to reduce $2,\text{g}$ of the reactant to $0.2,\text{g}$ is:

(1) $1000,\text{s}$

(2) $100,\text{s}$

(3) $200,\text{s}$

(4) $500,\text{s}$

Correct Answer: (4) $500,\text{s}$

Solution:

For a first-order reaction:

$kt = 2.303 \log \left(\dfrac{A_0}{A}\right)$

Substituting values:

$4.606 \times 10^{-3} \times t = 2.303 \log \left(\dfrac{2}{0.2}\right)$

$4.606 \times 10^{-3} \times t = 2.303 \log 10$

$4.606 \times 10^{-3} \times t = 2.303$

$t = \dfrac{2.303}{4.606 \times 10^{-3}}$

$t = 500,\text{s}$

Q4. If the rate constant for a first-order reaction is $k$, the time $(t)$ required for completion of $99%$ of the reaction is given by:

(1) $t = \dfrac{0.693}{k}$

(2) $t = \dfrac{6.909}{k}$

(3) $t = \dfrac{4.606}{k}$

(4) $t = \dfrac{2.303}{k}$

Correct Answer: (3) $t = \dfrac{4.606}{k}$

Solution:

For a first-order reaction:

$t = \dfrac{2.303}{k} \log \left(\dfrac{100}{100-99}\right)$

$t = \dfrac{2.303}{k} \log 100$

Since:

$\log 100 = 2$

Therefore:

$t = \dfrac{2.303 \times 2}{k}$

$t = \dfrac{4.606}{k}$

Q5. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only $\pi$-bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?

(1) $O_2$

(2) $N_2$

(3) $C_2$

(4) $Be_2$

Correct Answer: (3) $C_2$

Solution:

The molecular orbital configuration of $C_2$ is:

$(\sigma 1s)^2(\sigma^{}1s)^2(\sigma 2s)^2(\sigma^{}2s)^2(\pi 2p_x)^2(\pi 2p_y)^2$

The bonding electrons are present only in $\pi$ molecular orbitals. Hence, $C_2$ contains only $\pi$-bonds.

Q6. Consider the following species: $CN^+$, $CN^-$, $NO$, and $CN$. Which one of these has the highest bond order?

(1) $CN^+$

(2) $CN^-$

(3) $NO$

(4) $CN$

Correct Answer: (2) $CN^-$

Solution:

Bond order is calculated using:

$\text{Bond Order} = \dfrac{N_b - N_a}{2}$

$NO$ has $15$ electrons $\Rightarrow$ Bond order $= 2.5$

$CN^-$ has $14$ electrons $\Rightarrow$ Bond order $= 3$

$CN^+$ has $12$ electrons $\Rightarrow$ Bond order $= 2$

$CN$ has $13$ electrons $\Rightarrow$ Bond order $= 2.5$

Hence, $CN^-$ has the highest bond order.

Q7. The pH of a saturated solution of $Ca(OH)2$ is $9$. The solubility product $(K{sp})$ of $Ca(OH)_2$ is:

(1) $0.5 \times 10^{-15}$

(2) $0.25 \times 10^{-10}$

(3) $0.125 \times 10^{-15}$

(4) $0.5 \times 10^{-10}$

Correct Answer: (1) $0.5 \times 10^{-15}$

Solution:

Given:

$pH = 9$

Therefore:

$pOH = 14 - 9 = 5$

$[OH^-] = 10^{-5}$

For:

$Ca(OH)_2 \rightarrow Ca^{2+} + 2OH^-$

$[Ca^{2+}] = \dfrac{10^{-5}}{2}$

Now:

$K_{sp} = [Ca^{2+}][OH^-]^2$

$= \left(\dfrac{10^{-5}}{2}\right)(10^{-5})^2$

$= 0.5 \times 10^{-15}$

Q8. The solubility of $BaSO_4$ in water is $2.42 \times 10^{-3},\text{g L}^{-1}$ at $298,\text{K}$. The value of its solubility product $(K_{sp})$ is:

(Given molar mass of $BaSO_4 = 233,\text{g mol}^{-1}$)

(1) $1.08 \times 10^{-14},\text{mol}^2\text{L}^{-2}$

(2) $1.08 \times 10^{-12},\text{mol}^2\text{L}^{-2}$

(3) $1.08 \times 10^{-10},\text{mol}^2\text{L}^{-2}$

(4) $1.08 \times 10^{-8},\text{mol}^2\text{L}^{-2}$

Correct Answer: (3) $1.08 \times 10^{-10},\text{mol}^2\text{L}^{-2}$

Solution:

Molar solubility:

$s = \dfrac{2.42 \times 10^{-3}}{233}$

$s = 1.038 \times 10^{-5},\text{mol L}^{-1}$

For:

$BaSO_4 \rightleftharpoons Ba^{2+} + SO_4^{2-}$

$K_{sp} = s^2$

$= (1.038 \times 10^{-5})^2$

$= 1.08 \times 10^{-10},\text{mol}^2\text{L}^{-2}$

Q9. Which one of the following elements is unable to form $MF_6^{3-}$ ion?

(1) $B$

(2) $Al$

(3) $Ga$

(4) $In$

Correct Answer: (1) $B$

Solution:

Boron belongs to the second period and does not possess vacant $d$-orbitals. Therefore, it cannot expand its coordination number beyond $4$ and cannot form $BF_6^{3-}$.

Q10. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is:

(1) $B < Ga < Al < Tl < In$

(2) $B < Al < Ga < In < Tl$

(3) $B < Al < In < Ga < Tl$

(4) $B < Ga < Al < In < Tl$

Correct Answer: (4) $B < Ga < Al < In < Tl$

Solution:

In group 13, the order of atomic radii is irregular due to transition contraction. The discontinuity between $Al$ and $Ga$ arises because $d$ and $f$ electrons show poor shielding effect.

Hence, the correct order is:

$B < Ga < Al < In < Tl$

Re-NEET 2026 Biology Most Expected Questions (With Answers & Solutions)

The following Re-NEET 2026 Biology questions are prepared based on NCERT trends, previous year papers, and high-weightage chapters such as Genetics, Biotechnology, Human Physiology, and Ecology. Students can also download the complete PDF for additional practice and revision.

Q1. Which of the following is the correct unit of productivity in an ecosystem?

(1) $\text{KCal m}^{-2}\text{yr}^{-1}$

(2) $\text{g m}^{-2}$

(3) $\text{KCal m}^{-2}$

(4) $\text{KCal m}^{-3}$

Correct Answer: (1) $\text{KCal m}^{-2}\text{yr}^{-1}$

Explanation:

Productivity is measured as the rate of energy production per unit area per unit time. Therefore, its unit is:

$\text{KCal m}^{-2}\text{yr}^{-1}$

Q2. The first occurrence of menstruation in females is known as:

(1) Ovulation

(2) Menopause

(3) Menarche

(4) Diapause

Correct Answer: (3) Menarche

Explanation:

Menarche marks the beginning of the menstrual cycle in females and indicates reproductive maturity.

Q3. Genes $R$ and $Y$ assort independently. If $RRYY$ produces round yellow seeds and $rryy$ produces wrinkled green seeds, what is the phenotypic ratio in the $F_2$ generation?

(1) $9:7$

(2) $1:2:1$

(3) $3:1$

(4) $9:3:3:1$

Correct Answer: (4) $9:3:3:1$

Explanation:

This is a classic dihybrid cross demonstrating Mendel’s law of independent assortment.

Phenotypic ratio in the $F_2$ generation:

$9:3:3:1$

Q4. What is the main function of spindle fibres during mitosis?

(1) Regulate cell growth

(2) Separate chromosomes

(3) Synthesise DNA

(4) Repair DNA

Correct Answer: (2) Separate chromosomes

Explanation:

Spindle fibres attach to centromeres and pull sister chromatids toward opposite poles during cell division.

Q5. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required to form a mature female gametophyte from a megaspore mother cell in angiosperms?

(1) No meiosis and $2$ mitosis

(2) $2$ meiosis and $3$ mitosis

(3) $1$ meiosis and $2$ mitosis

(4) $1$ meiosis and $3$ mitosis

Correct Answer: (4) $1$ meiosis and $3$ mitosis

Explanation:

One meiotic division produces four megaspores. One functional megaspore then undergoes three mitotic divisions to form the embryo sac.

Q6. Which of the following statements about antibody structure is NOT correct?

(1) Constant regions are at the C-terminal

(2) Two heavy and two light chains are present

(3) Chains are linked by disulfide bonds

(4) Antigen-binding site is at the C-terminal

Correct Answer: (4) Antigen-binding site is at the C-terminal

Explanation:

The antigen-binding site is located at the variable region near the N-terminal end, not at the C-terminal end.

Q7. Who proposed that the genetic code consists of triplet nucleotides?

(1) Franklin Stahl

(2) George Gamow

(3) Francis Crick

(4) Jacques Monod

Correct Answer: (2) George Gamow

Explanation:

George Gamow proposed that the genetic code is made up of triplet nucleotides called codons.

Q8. Which equation represents logistic population growth?

(1) $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = N\left(\dfrac{r-K}{K}\right)$

(2) $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = r\left(\dfrac{K-N}{K}\right)$

(3) $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(\dfrac{K-N}{K}\right)$

(4) $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(\dfrac{N-K}{N}\right)$

Correct Answer: (3)

Explanation:

The logistic growth equation is:

$\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(\dfrac{K-N}{K}\right)$

where:

$N$ = population size

$r$ = intrinsic rate of increase

$K$ = carrying capacity

Q9. Which hormone is released by the pituitary gland but synthesised in the hypothalamus?

(1) ACTH

(2) LH

(3) ADH

(4) FSH

Correct Answer: (3) ADH

Explanation:

ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) is synthesised in the hypothalamus and stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland.

Q10. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

(1) Competitive inhibition

(2) Enzyme activation

(3) Cofactor inhibition

(4) Feedback inhibition

Correct Answer: (1) Competitive inhibition

Explanation:

Malonate structurally resembles succinate and competes for the active site of succinic dehydrogenase enzyme, thereby blocking substrate binding.